East Rite Catholic Beliefs?

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But how can we accept something that is incompatible with our theology? Like my example, how can we accept the Western definition of the Immaculate Conception when we do not believe in Original Sin the way Western Theology defines it?
The question, as you phrase it, presupposes that you are not bound by Magisterial authority to accept bindingly defined dogmas, that you may (or must) reject any element of such a dogma that does not fit your own theological tradition. This is the real problem.
 
The question, as you phrase it, presupposes that you are not bound by Magisterial authority to accept bindingly defined dogmas, that you may (or must) reject any element of such a dogma that does not fit your own theological tradition. This is the real problem.
There is no problem. The Church says there is no problem. The pope says there is no problem. Why are you insisting that there is a problem? I don’t get it? Why don’t you subject yourself to the teaching of the Church that there is no problem here? By saying there is a problem, you yourself do not accept the Magisterium who says there is no problem with the Eastern traditions.
 
There is no problem. The Church says there is no problem. The pope says there is no problem. Why are you insisting that there is a problem? I don’t get it? Why don’t you subject yourself to the teaching of the Church that there is no problem here? By saying there is a problem, you yourself do not accept the Magisterium who says there is no problem with the Eastern traditions.
What Magisterial teaching do you have exempting Eastern Catholics from the binding statements of the Extraordinary Magisterium after the seventh ecumenical council?
 
What Magisterial teaching do you have exempting Eastern Catholics from the binding statements of the Extraordinary Magisterium after the seventh ecumenical council?
Aelred Minor, what is your purpose here?
 
Aelred Minor, what is your purpose here?
My purpose is just to defend the authority of the Magisterium as a whole over the Church as a whole. If you want you can reread post #33, in which I wrote something about how I would see the implications of denying the universal teaching authority of the Popes and Ecumenical Councils.
 
How many times must I make the same point about fidelity to Church authority? Really, I don’t see much value in rehashing this arguement again and again.
Then you might consider posting in a forum other than this one, populated as it is by heretics and schismatics, as you seem to believe us to be.
 
Perhaps I’m wrong but there seems to be a disconnect here. The eastern catholic church does indeed participate in te magisterium. Though the theology is slightly different. For example the immaculate conception and mary. Where the western church is mlegalistic in defing dogmas and doctrines. The eastern catholic church focuses more on the mystery of the immaculate conception. Its still a dogma we all adhere to yet the eastern view is more a matter of faith than law. I hope I said it right.
 
My purpose is just to defend the authority of the Magisterium as a whole over the Church as a whole. If you want you can reread post #33, in which I wrote something about how I would see the implications of denying the universal teaching authority of the Popes and Ecumenical Councils.
As I said, you are enforcing and defending your own personal beliefs here. The Church herself have no problem with what we believe. Why are you making a fuss out of it? Do you think the Pope doesn’t know what we believe? No one is trying to play tricks on anyone here. You’re establishing your own personal crusade on a misguided notion. May Christ grant you peace of mind.
 
Aelred Minor
I suggest you Google the words "Immaculate Conception"Ukrainian Catholic", "Immaculate Conception"Maronite", "Immaculate Conception"Chaldean", etc. You may find that things are not quite the way you're hearing they are.
 
Here is what I got Googling
Therefore, the Immaculate Conception as it is professed in the 1854 dogma does not represent the Eastern understanding of sin, and it cannot be replaced by a Western understanding of sin. The acceptance of this dogma in the terms by which it was defined by Pius IX would be an unwarranted latinization. Thus, Eastern Catholics cannot profess the Immaculate Conception without qualification.
Before I conclude this section it is important to note that, although the Ukrainian Catholic Church is Eastern, because of the influence of the Roman Catholic Church certain anomalies are present within its theological tradition. For instance, though the Eastern teaching on sin is widely taught and accepted among Ukrainian Catholics, there is no definitive Eastern Catholic magisterial statement that states this, and therefore there is a plurality of opinions on this subject, which is permitted. Speaking from my own experience in the Ukrainian Catholic Church, there are some Ukrainian Catholics who accept the Western teaching of sin and the dogma of the Immaculate Conception without qualification. This group, which subsists in small pockets within the Ukrainian Catholic Church, is a result of latinization.
findarticles.com/p/articles/mi_hb3236/is_2_46/ai_n57871232/pg_4/
 
Dear brother Aelred,
The question, as you phrase it, presupposes that you are not bound by Magisterial authority to accept bindingly defined dogmas, that you may (or must) reject any element of such a dogma that does not fit your own theological tradition. This is the real problem.
I don’t know how you can make this statement in the context of what brother ConstantineTG has been saying.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother Aelred,
Do we really have to argue about this kind of minutia?
This minutae, as you call it, is the whole point of the discussion.🤷
For one thing it’s opaque because just before this he said, “How can we believe Mary was exempted from something that we do not believe in?”
I know exactly what he means, and it does not amount to a denial of the central Truth of the dogma of the IC.
and even in the second sentence of your highlighted section he proclaims the dogma “not compatible” with what Eastern Catholics believe
Where did he say this, without qualification?
The nearest thing was his making a distinction in his language between “the dogma” and “what we believe”, which seemed to suggest Eastern Catholics did not believe in the dogma itself but have merely arrived at a substantially similar conclusion independently.
I think that would be a correct interpretation, but what is wrong with it?
Finally, he did clarify his position in the next post of the exchange, proclaiming that “we” (presumably Eastern Catholics as a whole) are not bound to anything after the first seven ecumenical councils.
I think that was a matter of miscommunication. I don’t think brother Constantine is denying the Truths proclaimed by the extraordinary Magisterium, and he has said as much elsewhere. I think all he is saying is that he is not bound to the theology/theological language of the Western Catholic Church in which those dogmas have been expressed. Do you find anything wrong with that?

Blessings,
Marduk
 
I think that was a matter of miscommunication. I don’t think brother Constantine is denying the Truths proclaimed by the extraordinary Magisterium, and he has said as much elsewhere. I think all he is saying is that he is not bound to the theology/theological language of the Western Catholic Church in which those dogmas have been expressed. Do you find anything wrong with that?
I don’t find anything wrong with that, provided it is interpreted in the context of fidelity to the Magisterium itself. I think I’ve made it quite clear that my problem is not with the theology or theological language of the East, including the idea that Eastern belief is/already was substantially the same as what was infallibly defined by Pius IX. My problem is with the rejection of the authority of the Extraordinary Magisterium.

ConstantineTG has already explicitly denied that Eastern Catholics are bound to “anything” after the first seven ecumenical councils. I have given him chance after chance to clarify this if he simply miscommunicated, but he apparently remains firm in his position. It’s fairly clear that many other Eastern Catholics, like the Melkite bishop I quoted a while ago, are orthodox and faithful both to the Magisterium and to their own traditions. My objection is to the idea that the Extraordinary Magisterium simply has no authority with regard to Eastern Catholics, an idea I believe I’ve only seen ConstantineTG seriously defend so far on this thread (he’s also provided a quote from a blog which might possibly be interpreted as implying a similar viewpoint, though unlike ConstantineTG we can’t ask him exactly what he meant- a matter of wording to reflect certain theological points of difference between East and West or an actual rejection of part of the substance of the dogma and with it the Papal authority that made the dogma binding on all the faithful).
 
I think that would be a correct interpretation, but what is wrong with it?
What is wrong with it is that Pope Pius IX explicitly bound “all the faithful” to the dogma, not only Western Catholics. Eastern Catholics may still frame it in different words, reflect on it from their own viewpoints, etc., but are not free to withold their assent from the dogma itself. I think in light of your other comments we are in agreement on this point.
 
As I said, you are enforcing and defending your own personal beliefs here. The Church herself have no problem with what we believe. Why are you making a fuss out of it? Do you think the Pope doesn’t know what we believe? No one is trying to play tricks on anyone here. You’re establishing your own personal crusade on a misguided notion. May Christ grant you peace of mind.
It is theoretically possible that the last several Popes and those around them have been factually mistaken about what Eastern Catholics believe, but I don’t have any reason to suspect that is the case; indeed I’d find it extremely strange if it were. We do need to remember that, as this conversation itself has made clear, there is considerable diversity of opinion within the Eastern Catholic Churches, and so an acceptance of Eastern Christianity in general shouldn’t imply an endorsement of every sub-school of thought within it. It would also be realistic to remember the delicate nature of the ecumenical dialogue between the Catholic Church and the Orthodox Church right now, and how this can effect people’s words and actions.

More importantly though, I have no reason to believe the Church rejects what Eastern Catholics as a whole believe. Though I don’t know enough about Eastern theology to proclaim it for a fact, I suspect the vast majority of East-West differences either come down only to wording, or when there is a substantial difference it is not one that truly contradicts general Catholic doctrine. To take up the example of the Immaculate Conception again, my objection is not to the Eastern reflections on the subject (so far as I understand them) but to the rejection of the binding nature of the dogma itself for the whole Church due to the proclamation on the subject by Pope Pius IX.

The authority of the Extraordinary Magisterium is not just my own opinion. Some of the thoughts I expressed about the logical implications of denying this authority are my own original reflections, but these only speak to my personal motivations for defending ecclesial authority; they don’t mean that authority itself is just a matter of my own opinion.

Consider, for example, the Dogmatic Constitution Pastor aeternus of the First Vatican Council:

ewtn.com/faith/teachings/papae1.htm

(this is an abridged version).

Consider also the Dogmatic Constitution on the Church Lumen Gentium of the Second Vatican Council:

vatican.va/archive/hist_councils/ii_vatican_council/documents/vat-ii_const_19641121_lumen-gentium_en.html

Look especially at Chapter III there.

I could pull excerpts from these (I began to), but they would be long excerpts and I don’t want to violate CAF rules about long posts consisting mostly of quotes. I could go on finding further sources but do you really think the Church hasn’t taught on the subject of the structure and authority of the college of bishops?
 
Dear brother Aelred,
What is wrong with it is that Pope Pius IX explicitly bound “all the faithful” to the dogma, not only Western Catholics. Eastern Catholics may still frame it in different words, reflect on it from their own viewpoints, etc., but are not free to withold their assent from the dogma itself. I think in light of your other comments we are in agreement on this point.
NONE of the Catholic dogmas are absent from Sacred Tradition.

You make a big deal when a non-Latin Catholic says, “I follow what Sacred Tradition has always taught” and for some reason think this is substantially different from when a Latin Catholic says, “I follow what the Pope taught in the new dogma.”

Is not the Extraordinary Magisterium itself subject to Sacred Tradition?

I myself have no problem describing my belief with either expression, since they are equivalent to me. It appears that it is you who are making a false dichotomy between Sacred Tradition, the living Magisterium, and dogma. From the perspective of myself and others, you are making a mountain out of something that is not even a molehill.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother Aelred,

You are preaching to the choir here in the ECF.

Blessings,
Marduk
The authority of the Extraordinary Magisterium is not just my own opinion. Some of the thoughts I expressed about the logical implications of denying this authority are my own original reflections, but these only speak to my personal motivations for defending ecclesial authority; they don’t mean that authority itself is just a matter of my own opinion.

Consider, for example, the Dogmatic Constitution Pastor aeternus of the First Vatican Council:

ewtn.com/faith/teachings/papae1.htm

(this is an abridged version).

Consider also the Dogmatic Constitution on the Church Lumen Gentium of the Second Vatican Council:

vatican.va/archive/hist_councils/ii_vatican_council/documents/vat-ii_const_19641121_lumen-gentium_en.html

Look especially at Chapter III there.

I could pull excerpts from these (I began to), but they would be long excerpts and I don’t want to violate CAF rules about long posts consisting mostly of quotes. I could go on finding further sources but do you really think the Church hasn’t taught on the subject of the structure and authority of the college of bishops?
 
What is wrong with it is that Pope Pius IX explicitly bound “all the faithful” to the dogma, not only Western Catholics. Eastern Catholics may still frame it in different words, reflect on it from their own viewpoints, etc., but are not free to withold their assent from the dogma itself. I think in light of your other comments we are in agreement on this point.
What you are missing here is that these dogmatic definitions are just outlines of beliefs that are already there. For example the Dogma of the Assumption wasn’t until 1950. It doesn’t mean that we never believed in the Assumption before that. The Dormition has been part of the Eastern tradition from the early days of the Church. So why do we need to be bound to something we already believe in? And indeed the Churches East and West has agreed that our beliefs do not contradict each other. So bound or not, our belief is already there. We refuse to have our beliefs redefined because its part of the Eastern praxis to put more weight on how the Church Fathers taught. But again its not like we do not already believe what is dogmatically defined. We just do not follow the definition word for word. There are differences in how we understand our faith with how the West understands her faith and we cannot accept a dogmatization of the West because it is based on Western theology. To accept that as is means to redefine our whole theology into Western theology. Then that would have systematically killed the entire Eastern tradition.
 
Dear brother Aelred,

NONE of the Catholic dogmas are absent from Sacred Tradition.

You make a big deal when a non-Latin Catholic says, “I follow what Sacred Tradition has always taught” and for some reason think this is substantially different from when a Latin Catholic says, “I follow what the Pope taught in the new dogma.”

Is not the Extraordinary Magisterium itself subject to Sacred Tradition?

I myself have no problem describing my belief with either expression, since they are equivalent to me. It appears that it is you who are making a false dichotomy between Sacred Tradition, the living Magisterium, and dogma. From the perspective of myself and others, you are making a mountain out of something that is not even a molehill.

Blessings,
Marduk
Again, I’m not denying that the Immaculate Conception is a revealed truth and a part of Sacred Tradition, nor that Eastern Christians have retained this Tradition. The Pope didn’t teach a new dogma, but an Apostolic one. On the other hand, this dogma had not been bindingly proclaimed before Ineffabilis Deus; thus in earlier centuries you had Catholics who honestly strived to be and believed themselves to be faithful, including Doctors of the Church, who explicitly denied the Immaculate Conception, some with regret and others with vehemence. Yet again, I’m not denying that the substance of this dogma has always been present in both the Eastern Church and the Western Church, but rather insisting on the universally binding nature of the proclamation of the doctrine by Pope Pius IX. The core issue here is not the Immaculate Conception itself, but Papal authority, and the authority of the Extraordinary Magisterium in general.
 
What you are missing here is that these dogmatic definitions are just outlines of beliefs that are already there. For example the Dogma of the Assumption wasn’t until 1950. It doesn’t mean that we never believed in the Assumption before that. The Dormition has been part of the Eastern tradition from the early days of the Church. So why do we need to be bound to something we already believe in? And indeed the Churches East and West has agreed that our beliefs do not contradict each other. So bound or not, our belief is already there. We refuse to have our beliefs redefined because its part of the Eastern praxis to put more weight on how the Church Fathers taught. But again its not like we do not already believe what is dogmatically defined. We just do not follow the definition word for word. There are differences in how we understand our faith with how the West understands her faith and we cannot accept a dogmatization of the West because it is based on Western theology. To accept that as is means to redefine our whole theology into Western theology. Then that would have systematically killed the entire Eastern tradition.
Concerning the fact that the Magisterium has only bindingly defined beliefs which were already present in the Church, we are agreed. The Magisterium is the authentic teacher and interpreter of Apostolic Tradition, not its inventor. Nevertheless, it’s role is very important as each new generation has the potential to misinterpret or misrepresent that Deposit of Faith, hence the need for a living interpreter with the authority even to bind the faithful to a belief which may have become controversial, as was the case with the Immaculate Conception. It is, for the umpteenth time, this authority I’m insisting on, not any supposed absence of the substance of a particular dogma in Eastern beliefs.

Whether you are bound by a Magisterial statement defining something you already believe in is important because it speaks to the authority structure of the Church, and because it sets a precedent of acceptance or rejection of that authority for any future binding definitions by Popes or Ecumenical Councils. Also, considering the teachings of previous Popes and Ecumenical Councils concerning their own authority, to reject individual instances of that authority being exercised even while professing belief in the substance of what is taught means to also reject the substance of their teachings on authority.

I’m not certain what you mean by “a dogmatization of the West.” If this means a binding of all Catholics explicitly to something that has been considered specifically Western theology, I don’t believe this has ever happened, but if it did that would simply mean that the particular element of what was previously identified as Western theology was simply Apostolic Tradition, perhaps an aspect of it that was neglected in the East. Same thing in reverse for if it bindingly defined something previously generally identified as a part of Eastern theology. Even one’s highly valued interpretive traditions are subsidiary to the Truth itself- indeed they ought to be at the service of the Truth. But this is pure "what if"s. When the Church proclaims a dogma like the Immaculate Conception, what is important to adhere to is the authority of the proclamation and the accuracy of its content, not necessarily the precise terminology it is framed in.

I feel like this conversation is going around in circles.
 
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