Eastern Catholic Priesthood

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I apologize. I’m not going to have time today to post the research I did last night. It’s been a very busy day and I’m still trying to get work caught up after being sick and without a car due to a minor accident. God willing I will be able to post something tomorrow. :o
 
I was just able to find what Metropolitan Kallistos has to say about the priest being “in persona Christi”. You may check out this link if you would like to listen to him oltv.tv/id857.html

He mentions that it is during the epiclesis (the central point of the Byzantine Liturgy, much like the Words of Institution are the central point of the Roman Mass) that the priest is “in persona populi”. His foundation for this thesis is the fact that during the epiclesis the pronoun “we” is repeated multiple times. However, he does not say that the priest is not “in persona Christi” otherwise. For this I will defer to what Rt. Rev. Lawrence Cross says in his books “Eastern Christianity: The Byzantine Tradition” and “Image, Symbol and Mystery: An Eastern Christian View of the Sacraments”. He claims that in the Byzantine tradition the priest is not “in persona Christi”, but is rather an icon of Christ. I will comment more on this later, as time allows. In the meantime, enjoy Met. Kallistos. His wisdom is profound. 👍
 
I was just able to find what Metropolitan Kallistos has to say about the priest being “in persona Christi”. You may check out this link if you would like to listen to him oltv.tv/id857.html
Thanks for this referral. Metropolitan Kallistos is always very helpful. I’m interested in this section of the vido as well because, off topic, I’m been thinking about the new translation of the Roman Missal which will begin the Creed “I”, as we pray it in the Divine Liturgy and as the Latin “Credo” translates, although the original Creed in the Greek established by the first ecumenical council was “We” which has been and currently is the usage in the Roman Rite Ordinary Form of the Holy Mass. Metropolitan Kallistos talks about this in the section you have referred to here and then further explores extensively the use of “I” and “we” throughout the liturgy.

Again, thanks for the link. I encourage others to go there. All of the OLTV videos are wonderful resources.
 
P.S. I don’t have time and don’t want to try to paraphrase what His Excellency says but, directly related to the “in persona populi”, “in persona populi” and why Phillip Rolfes also may have made the referral to the clip, His Excellency references that language, in the liturgy “we” is used in invoking the Holy Spirit at the Epiclesis which is understood in such a more central way in the EC DL, as compared to the first person usage in the words of Christ God “I” in the Words of Institution. I think understanding the difference in how East and West understand the Mystery of the bread and wine becoming the Real Presence is important and is embedded in the difference in the emphasis of the invoking the Holy Spirit at the Epiclesis East and West. Maybe this has been mentioned and I missed it.
 
One should remember, tho’, the Slavic languages, as with English, can use the 1st person plural forms instead of singular for a ruler…
 
One should remember, tho’, the Slavic languages, as with English, can use the 1st person plural forms instead of singular for a ruler…
Are you referring to what might be called the “royal we” such as when Queen Elizabeth speaks? Thanks for that reminder. But I don’t think that is the “we” in “We believe in…”, or “we” used in invoking the Holy Spirit at the Epiclesis, the “we” Metropolitan Kallistos is examining in the litrugy.

(I did a double take at your comment because it immediately made me think of the book First Person Plural: My Life as a Multiple, a very moving narrative of one man’s struggle with dissociative identity disorder, otherwise known as multiple personality disorder.)
 
This is one of the departure points between Byzantine and Western Theology. Another one is that the priest is the minister of the sacrament of marriage, not the couple, in Byzantine Theology.

However, in the Latin Church, the** form** of marriage approved by the Church is needed for the validity of marriage, so it not only the couples valid consent that makes the marriage valid. In that respect, Latin and Eastern Catholic are similar in practice.

1983 CIC Canon 1117 The form prescribed above is to be observed if at least one of the parties contracting marriage was baptised in the catholic Church or received into it *and has not by a formal act defected from it , without prejudice to the provisions of canon 1127.2.

*italics portion is being eliminated with Omnium in Mentem 2009.

CIC 1623 According to the Latin tradition, the spouses as ministers of Christ’s grace mutually confer upon each other the sacrament of Matrimony by expressing their consent before the Church. In the traditions of the Eastern Churches, the priests (bishops or presbyters) are witnesses to the mutual consent given by the spouses,[Cf. CCEO, can. 817] but for the validity of the sacrament their blessing is also necessary.[Cf. CCEO, can. 828]
 
Are you referring to what might be called the “royal we” such as when Queen Elizabeth speaks? Thanks for that reminder. But I don’t think that is the “we” in “We believe in…”, or “we” used in invoking the Holy Spirit at the Epiclesis, the “we” Metropolitan Kallistos is examining in the litrugy.

(I did a double take at your comment because it immediately made me think of the book First Person Plural: My Life as a Multiple, a very moving narrative of one man’s struggle with dissociative identity disorder, otherwise known as multiple personality disorder.)
Yes, the Royal We, which, if in persona Christi, then the person of Christ is absolutely proper to use it…

Tho’ I’d agree that the priest is vicare populem, rather than in persona christi, but the “we”/«мы» is no proof of it.
 
I won’t repeat my argument that, theologically, I don’t understand how the priest can’t be acting “in the person of Christ”, but I don’t understand why it has to be one or the other. Why can’t the priest be acting both “for the people” and “in the person of Christ”? That would be my understandig of the Latin mass. What Christian mystery is ever so simple that a SINGLE phrase can explain its entire meaning? I would argue that in the Latin RIte, when the people pray “May the Lord accept the sacrifice at your hands…” the priest is logically acting and offering the sacrifice on our behalf - vicare populem. Not to mention that Christ Himself, as the High Priest, acts for and in the place of mankind! As Scripture teaches, a priest is chosen from among men to offer sacrifice on our behalf before God. If Latin priests are said to act ‘in the person of Christ’, they must also be acting ‘in the person of the people’.
 
The CCEO Canon 698 does use the phrase “priest acting in the person of Christ”.
 
If a Western, Latin-rite, married man felt called to become a priest, could he change rites and then pursue the Priesthood?
 
If a Western, Latin-rite, married man felt called to become a priest, could he change rites and then pursue the Priesthood?
The answer is NO…I’ve been searching these forums and the internet for days. Thats one of the reasons why I have asked so many questions on these Eastern Catholic forums lol. Ordination would be highly unlikely. Unfortunate but it is what it is, and the latin rite has had a mandatory celibate clergy since 1120. Doesn’t really make sense to me, but part of being Catholic means obedience. Look into the diaconate.
 
If a Western, Latin-rite, married man felt called to become a priest, could he change rites and then pursue the Priesthood?
Technically it can be done (but will they approve it?), requiring about 5 years seminary, after a four year college degree, by transferring first to an Eastern Catholic Church, but then it would be required to live in the original territory of the Church in Europe (as one priest explained it for the Byzantine) before being able to be assigned to a US parish. It would require living on a small budget and the wife has to agree to all this, and both must be living good examples to others.
 
Technically it can be done (but will they approve it?), requiring about 5 years seminary, after a four year college degree, by transferring first to an Eastern Catholic Church, but then it would be required to live in the original territory of the Church in Europe (as one priest explained it for the Byzantine) before being able to be assigned to a US parish. It would require living on a small budget and the wife has to agree to all this, and both must be living good examples to others.
Have you ever known of a case like this?
 
Have you ever known of a case like this?
No. I heard my (Byzantine) pastor say it could be done, but would require living outside the USA for a time. He was answering a question from a married man of the Latin Church who asked if he could become a Byzantine priest.
 
If a Western, Latin-rite, married man felt called to become a priest, could he change rites and then pursue the Priesthood?
Regardless of whether he COULD or not, he really shouldn’t. Wishing to claim the priesthood while skirting the evangelical counsels implicit in that vocation is an incredibly poor reason to change rites. One should only change rites because the Holy Spirit has led them to that rite for its sake, not as a means for becoming a priest that can have sex. If a Latin is married, then regardless of how he feels he is not called to the priesthood (exempting, of course, converts from Anglicanism who become ordained according to the canonical exeptions).
 
Regardless of whether he COULD or not, he really shouldn’t. Wishing to claim the priesthood while skirting the evangelical counsels implicit in that vocation is an incredibly poor reason to change rites. One should only change rites because the Holy Spirit has led them to that rite for its sake, not as a means for becoming a priest that can have sex. If a Latin is married, then regardless of how he feels he is not called to the priesthood (exempting, of course, converts from Anglicanism who become ordained according to the canonical exeptions).
What if that was ONE of MANY reasons? And I also feel that your rationale for a priest wanting to get married simply so he can “have sex” is a tad bit disrespectful to all our married clergy (and even popes) that were in the church before 1139, and to all the eastern rite married clergy. Sex is a major part of marriage, but its not the only component.
 
What if that was ONE of MANY reasons?
It makes no difference. The current discipline in the Latin Church is for a strictly celibate secular clergy. Period. Feeling a call to both marriage and Holy Orders is not a valid reason to translate to another Church sui juris.
And I also feel that your rationale for a priest wanting to get married simply so he can “have sex” is a tad bit disrespectful to all our married clergy (and even popes) that were in the church before 1139, and to all the eastern rite married clergy. Sex is a major part of marriage, but its not the only component.
This isn’t my argument, but I don’t see any disrespect whatsoever in Cecilianus’ post.
 
If a Western, Latin-rite, married man felt called to become a priest, could he change rites and then pursue the Priesthood?
Go attend an EC parish- do it more than once. You don’t need anyone’s permission to do that. Beyond that, I pray God will guide you.
 
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