The quote from Aquinas sounds like a double procession to the Greeks.
Then, to put it bluntly, “the Greeks” (and I use this term in quotes because I know for a fact that this doesn’t reflect the understanding of all “the Greeks”, being that I worship in a “Greek” community that is very insistant on not adopting the filioque, but also insistant that the Latin understanding doesn’t contradict ours) need to learn to read Latin theology before commenting on it or judging it. This is the same reaction that led to my own Armenian ancestors being labled Eutychians and Monophysites for the past 1600 years.
Part of the problem is that the critics of this theology haven’t grasped it before arguing against it, and instead have latched on to misunderstandings of certain phrases and placed their own meanings above the actual meanings expressed (and clarified, and re-clarified) by the theological tradition in question.
It says there are two processions but since the Son recieves the ability to send the Spirit from the Father therefore the Father can be said to be the sole source.
Actually it says that there is one procession, with a distinction between the Father’s role in it, and the Son’s (the article from which the quote is drawn is on the question of whether the Holy Spirit proceeds “from the Father, through the Son”; one procession a distinction between the roles of Father and Son).
Elsewhere Aquinas makes it very clear that there are only two processions in God, that of the Son and that of the Holy Spirit; there can not be three (two for the Holy Spirit) under any reading of Aquinas.
My whole point is that Latin documents don’t say anything about a distinction. It is not my job to give a document from the Latins that says they don’t make the distinction. Why would they make a positive statement about them not making a distinction?
Aquinas
does make an explicit distinction: he says that the Holy Spirit proceeds principally (principaliter) from the Father. That is a very clear distinction because there can only be one “principal”, a term that literally and directly states the monarchy of the Father (“principal” being equivalent to “mon-archos”), whereas the term “principle” (a different term with a shared root, often confused with “principal”; in Aquinas text they are very clearly different words, namely “principaliter” and “principium” respectively).
To say that the Latin documents say nothing about a distinction is to completely ignore the actual words used.
At the Council of Florence the Latins set forth the distinction before setting down the “definition”, namely that the Father alone is the Source of the Holy Spirit. Only then does it go on to speak of the Holy Spirit proceeding “at once” from the Father and Son, with the assumption that the readers haven’t forgotten the previous paragraph and context.
At any rate, my point of saying all of this is to encourage a proper understanding of a particular Catholic theological tradition, not to claim that the Latin approach is the end-all and be-all. We can’t have any discussion about the validity of different Catholic traditions and theological expressions if we can’t even get those theologies and traditions right.
At this point we might as well be asking how Monophysites like the Copts (and St. Cyril, for that matter) can truly be Catholic along with Duophysites like the Byzantines and Latins.
I have to ask, Jimmy. Have you actually read a Latin document saying that the Father and Son are one Source, or that there are two processions of the Holy Spirit, or that the Father and Son have an identical relationship to the Spiration of the Holy Spirit, or is that what you’ve read in non-Latin works about Latin beliefs?
Peace and God bless!