Eastern Catholics, are we really Catholic?

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The creed says that the Son is begotten of the Father, not of the one essence.
jimmy,

Do you consider this following statement as heresy?

The Son is: Son of the nature of His Father

I asked Apotheoun (Todd) this question, but I’m still waiting on his reply. I hope he’s ok, I haven’t seen him post here in a while.

Just so you know, this is exactly what we confess about the Son in the Creed of the Chaldean liturgy, though in English, it has been translated equivalently as “of the same substance as his Father”, but the literal translation of the Modern-Aramaic of the Chaldean Creed which is pronounced in Chaldean-Modern-Aramaic as “bir di-kyana d-babeh”, is the following:

ܒܸܪ ܕܸܟܝܵܢܵܐ ܕܒܵܒܹܗ

ܒܸܪ bir - Son
ܕܸܟܝܵܢܵܐ di-kyana - of the nature (or essence)
ܕܒܵܒܹܗ d-babeh - of His Father

The essence here referring to the general essence (or kyana in Eastern Aramaic).

What do you think?

God bless,

Rony
 
**
Son of the nature of His Father
I was a little harsh above with my reference to heresy. I will just say I don’t understand it. I really don’t know what to say beyond this. Are there any east Syriac explanations of Trinitarian theology?

ps, sorry I couldn’t make it to the liturgy this past Sunday. What did you think of the liturgy? Did anyone go with you?

Do you want to go up to the Melkite church in Akron soon? I know Joe wants to. I think he wanted to go this Sunday but I haven’t talked to him for a little while.**
 
The problem that some people have with the expression “Orthodox in Communion with Rome” stems from the fact that much of what is identified as “Orthodox” today has no place in the Catholic Communion. There are definitely views that are prevalent within the Eastern Orthodox Communion, including aspects of self-identity, that no Eastern Catholic can subscribe to and remain Catholic.

That being said, I personally don’t have a problem with the expression, but only because I don’t understand “Orthodox in Communion with Rome” as being equivalent to “what the Eastern Orthodox consider Orthodox, in Communion with Rome”. That would indeed be an oxymoron, because much of what Eastern Catholics affirm by the very existence of the Eastern Catholic Churches contradicts the position of many, if not most, leading Eastern Orthodox. As I’ve said before, the very fact that “in Communion with Rome” is added indicates that there is a clear difference between Eastern Orthodox (in general) and Eastern Catholics that goes beyond merely recognizing the Pope in the Divine Liturgy; we are something other than Eastern Orthodox, and that does not mean we are something lesser, or that we are polluted by Latinizations. Our whole understanding of the West, and of Apostolic Communion, must be different in order for us to exist at all.
Ghosty,
This is precisely the problem that the term “Orthodox in Communion with Rome” has. We can not tell if someone who uses this term means “what the Eastern Orthodox consider Orthodox, in Communion with Rome” or something else. Some who use it do mean exactly that.

Why chose to use such a term that can be so easily misunderstood. We are Byzantine (or Eastern for those not of the Byzantine rite) Catholics. We know what that means so why not use it?
 
**

I was a little harsh above with my reference to heresy. I will just say I don’t understand it. I really don’t know what to say beyond this. Are there any east Syriac explanations of Trinitarian theology?

ps, sorry I couldn’t make it to the liturgy this past Sunday. What did you think of the liturgy? Did anyone go with you?

Do you want to go up to the Melkite church in Akron soon? I know Joe wants to. I think he wanted to go this Sunday but I haven’t talked to him for a little while.**
You know there is a Melkite Mission in Zanesville served by the Columbus priest… they have a DL on Sat nights. I don’t know how close that is to you.
 
You know there is a Melkite Mission in Zanesville served by the Columbus priest… they have a DL on Sat nights. I don’t know how close that is to you.
I am not sure where Zanesville is. I am from Pittsburgh so I am not sure whether it is closer or not. Thanks for the info.
 
I am not sure where Zanesville is. I am from Pittsburgh so I am not sure whether it is closer or not. Thanks for the info.
I thought you were in Steubenville. Oops.
Zanesville is an hour due East of Columbus on I-70.
 
jimmy,

Do you consider this following statement as heresy?

The Son is: Son of the nature of His Father

I asked Apotheoun (Todd) this question, but I’m still waiting on his reply. I hope he’s ok, I haven’t seen him post here in a while.

Just so you know, this is exactly what we confess about the Son in the Creed of the Chaldean liturgy, though in English, it has been translated equivalently as “of the same substance as his Father”, but the literal translation of the Modern-Aramaic of the Chaldean Creed which is pronounced in Chaldean-Modern-Aramaic as “bir di-kyana d-babeh”, is the following:

ܒܸܪ ܕܸܟܝܵܢܵܐ ܕܒܵܒܹܗ

ܒܸܪ bir - Son
ܕܸܟܝܵܢܵܐ di-kyana - of the nature (or essence)
ܕܒܵܒܹܗ d-babeh - of His Father

The essence here referring to the general essence (or kyana in Eastern Aramaic).

What do you think?

God bless,

Rony
Rony, I was thinking about this today and I would like to ask you a few questions about the Chaldean version of the creed. The statement, Son of the nature of the Father is a little strange to me because I have never heard it before.

Do you think there is any fundamental difference or a difference of emphasis in the official English translation and the literal translation? Is it possible that the statement only refers to the fact that they are of the same nature/essence? Are there any implications of the Syriac text that can only be grasped if you have an understanding of the language?

Second, it seems to me that the statement -Son of the nature of the Father - refers to the particular nature of the Father. Although, as you mentioned that dkyama refers to the general essence the way it is structured seems to imply the personal nature of the Father because of the use of the possessive pronoun in dbabeh. Maybe I am reading into the text but is it possible that this statement with its use of the term for general essences implies that the Father is the fountain or source of the essence of the Trinity?

And just to clarify my above statements. My main purpose was to emphasize the pre-eminence of the concept of the person over that of essence. It seems to me that the statement that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the one essence of the Father and the Son implies the pre-eminence of the concept of essence. And that is why I responded by saying that the Father is the source of the Trinity rather than the one essence. The Chaldean creed doesn’t seem - as far as I can see - to be saying anything contradictory to what I am saying.

I would never call the creed of the Chaldeans heretical. I wouldn’t consider any of the major traditions to be heretical. They may have been contstrued as heretical in the past but that was based on misunderstandings.
 
why is this even a discussion …of course east rite catholics are catholic…

this thread makes no sense.
 
Noted.
Anyway, the bulk of Catholics who normally post here on Catholic Answers have made it abundantly clear that such a union…of clearly autocephalic equal churches, in Communion but not merged into one corporate financial structure, is a dead dream. Of course, it’s not their dream, so they don’t care.

With that, I think that they kill the model of unity the eastern Catholic churches were hoped to exemplify (at least the hope of the most recent Pontiffs).

It is perhaps one reason so many eastern Catholics swim the Bosporus.

Michael
Very nice Michael. :rolleyes: And then you seem surprised when people find your posts polemical.

I think your comments on the thinking of people who normally post at CAF is, to say the least, grossly oversimplified. As are your claims on the thoughts of the recent Popes.

Hmmmm … “so many” eastern Catholics swim the Bosporus. Let’s see, are we counting the so-called Synod of L’viv and Uzhhorod? Oh, I guess not, as we are talking about an asserted cause - some posters at CAF killing a certain model of unity - that came long after that.

Strangely enough, that cause may, through diligent polemics, entice a few to swim. As much as I find it bizarre that information posted on internet fora would be considered significant in such decisions, I have read testimonies by people over at OC.net. (Often from alienated RC’s who spend a little time in EC churches as a step toward quitting the Catholic church.) I suspect that there are activities on alternative medicine sites that are equally hair-raising.
 
What we see taking place here is a battle…for the soul of eastern Catholicism.
There are some 16 million Eastern Catholics, only a couple of per
cent of these in the US. And here, there are there are perhaps a dozen regular posters who identify as Eastern Catholics. There are many ways that one might be tempted to characterize the discussion of these few souls, but “battle…for the soul of eastern Catholicism.”? Leave it out.
Let me be frank about this. When the union of Brest was crafted (one example, every church was different), these rank and file Byzantine Christians were not ‘eastern Catholics’ in the sense we have today. They were Orthodox. They were accepted whole and entire into communion with Rome in their Orthodox mindset and belief system.
Every church was and is different. But do you really think that the UGC’s are really so different then and now? Can we look at UOC-KP as a comparison? How different are the UGCC and UOC-KP? The salient fact is that people of the union were Easterners protruding into Western lands and living among Westerners. That fact has had assimilatory effects (and counter-assimilatory) effects on both EC and EO’s.
They knew nothing…nothing, of Purgatory, the Latin concept of Original Sin…etc, etc, etc. That’s to say nothing of such concepts as Universal Jurisdiction and Papal monopoly over the infallibility of the church (which were but the gleam in somebody’s eyes back then).
I think that you may be largely correct about our lack of knowledge, but probably for the wrong reasons. The real reason is simply that was a general lack of education or a sense that this was the key to salvation. We had our liturgical practice, which we did and continued to do well. It was what we knew, what we loved, and how we loved.

That means that we might not have know about the discussion between East and West on esoterica of purgatory, but we did pray for the dead with conviction that these prays would be efficacious. On original sin, I really don’t know. And we probably didn’t think much about the universe of jurisdiction, but we have notions of the idea of primacy and authority within our regions. As to the"papal monopoly over the infallibility", well I don’t know anyone who knows about that.

It also means that we probably, knew nothing nothing about hesychasm, essence and energy distinctions, neo-patristic views of original sin (and polemics on western views) , soft-pedaling on the fearsome judgment of God (and polemics on western views), and all sorts of other ideas of today’s book learned EO’s. We were not 20th century (American) Orthodox.

We were not theologians in the contemporary sense (both Catholic and EO). We were people who loved to pray. We were humble before the awesome mystery of God, and were not inflated disputants on matters that just didn’t seem connected to the key issues of loving God, avoiding sin, and doing some good.

And I think this characterization still holds true, at least among the best of us.
Thus, they were not Catholics in the modern sense, or even in the 16th century sense. They were in communion with Rome though.
I am not so sure. What I described about us probably applied equally well to Pasteur’s Breton woman, and many other “good people” of the West.
Then followed a long period of assimilation into Latin theological perspectives and attitudes. Accomplished mostly by introducing Latin religious orders to teach in the seminaries, and the sending of new generations of priests into the hinterland to “complete” the conversion process
“Accomplished”. Aha a plot! Well, yes, we must admit that part of the coercion and bribery of the unia was better integration into the developing systems of scholarly activity in the West. And obviously, we could not get instructors from Russian Orthodox seminaries. And yes, how odd that we would send seminary educated priests to our people.
We also know most of the people (they must number a good 80 million at least) who are descended from the people of that Union are not under submission to, nor any longer in communion with Rome today. When they returned to Holy orthodoxy, they did not require any kind of extensive catechetical program, they already knew the theology.
So apparently, the plot wasn’t so thick after all.

I would like to see where the 80 million at least figure comes from. And it would be nice, in the interest of the Truth, that you point out that this “return” overwhelmingly involved force, and did not allow for choice.

Your point about the manner of reception of Greek Catholics, however, is an excellent one that I often make. Clearly, the normal way of receiving Catholics into Orthodoxy, involves neither baptism nor chrismation, just confession and communion in one’s own parish that had been laid claim to by Orthodox.

This means, ISTM, that means that our excommunication from Orthodoxy is not about what we believe, and the EO churches fully understand that. Hospodi Pomiluj.
 
I know. That’s why I said your statement was not heretical, but just “a silly – and misleading – argument.”

To say that the filioque follows automatically from the fact that the Father and the Son are one (as the Father is in the Son and the Son is in the Father) make no sense at all. Not every statement that can be made about the Father can also be made about the Son, and vice versa. Some statements are true about both of them, and some statements are true only about one or the other of them.
Since the Son is eternally one with the Father,and he has all that the Father has from eternity,and does what the Father does from eternity,it stands to reason that the Spirit proceeds eternally from both. The filioque is not about procession from a single cause (ekporeusis),it is about the act of going forth (procedit). Catholic theology takes it as a given that the Father is the ultimate source of the Spirit,simply because he is the Father.
If the Orthodox are uncomfortable with eternal procession from the Son,they must also be uncomfortable with Christ’s statement that he and the Father are one. It is the same mystery of consubstantial union.
 
[ByzCath]
The main cause for the arugment on the filioque is the root languages involved. The use of Latin and Greek. Latin uses a word that has multiple meanings where Greek uses a word that has one meaning.
Any ways, the filioque is not a dogma and we Eastern Catholics have been told to remove it from our Creed. I know that when Pope John Paul II would recite the Creed in Latin he would omit it.
The filioque is official Catholic doctrine. Eastern Catholics don’t have to recite it in their creed,but as Catholics,they should accept the doctrine.

Council of Lyons II:
“the Holy Spirit proceeds eternally from the Father and the Son, not as from two principles but as from one single Principle (tamquam ex uno principio)” (DS 850).

“…the eternal order of the Divine Persons in their consubstantial communion implies that the Father, as the ‘principle without principle,’ is the first origin of the Spirit, but also that, as Father of the only Son, He is, with the Son, the single Principle from which the Spirit proceeds.” (DS 850).’ "
 
Clearly, the normal way of receiving Catholics into Orthodoxy, involves neither baptism nor chrismation, just confession and communion in one’s own parish that had been laid claim to by Orthodox.

This means, ISTM, that means that our excommunication from Orthodoxy is not about what we believe, and the EO churches fully understand that. Hospodi Pomiluj.
This is what is most confusing sometimes for a Catholic to understand. On the one hand, we have heard that some Orthodox maintain that the Catholic baptism and all the other Sacraments are not valid from their point of view, and yet on the other hand, the reception of Catholics into Orthodoxy is as you say it is.
 
Are there any east Syriac explanations of Trinitarian theology?
Jimmy,

There is a section on the Trinity in Mar Odisho’s Marganitha. There is a translation of it here, and another translation here.
ps, sorry I couldn’t make it to the liturgy this past Sunday. What did you think of the liturgy? Did anyone go with you?
No problem bro., I thought it was ok. I got to introduce myself to Fr. Rudy, and he said: ahlan wasahlan 🙂

I went by myself.
Do you want to go up to the Melkite church in Akron soon? I know Joe wants to. I think he wanted to go this Sunday but I haven’t talked to him for a little while.
Sure, I’ll be there this Sunday.
Do you think there is any fundamental difference or a difference of emphasis in the official English translation and the literal translation? Is it possible that the statement only refers to the fact that they are of the same nature/essence? Are there any implications of the Syriac text that can only be grasped if you have an understanding of the language?
Different words, same meaning. The meaning is that the Son is one with the Father, that is, of one Nature/Essence. “Son of the” has the same meaning as “of one” or “of the same”.

For example, we call Christ: Son of God (ܒܪܗ ܕܐܠܗܐ) and Son of Man (ܒܪܗ ܕܐܢܫܐ), and we mean that He is one with God and one with Man, or simply as God and Man.

But, we also certainly make a distinction between the Son and the Father, the Son has His own Divine Qnoma (particular or singular Nature/Essence), and the Father has His own Divine Qnoma, though both are of one inseparable Divine Nature/Essence (the Divine Kyana).

Likewise, in the Incarnation, we make a distinction between Christ’s Human Qnoma, and the human Qnome of other men, even though both Christ and other men are one by Human Nature/Essence (the Human Kyana). Of course, the other difference between Christ and other men is that Christ is a Unity of the Divine and Human, God and Man, in one Parsopa (Person).
Second, it seems to me that the statement -Son of the nature of the Father - refers to the particular nature of the Father. Although, as you mentioned that dkyama refers to the general essence the way it is structured seems to imply the personal nature of the Father because of the use of the possessive pronoun in dbabeh. Maybe I am reading into the text but is it possible that this statement with its use of the term for general essences implies that the Father is the fountain or source of the essence of the Trinity?
The Qnoma of the Father is the eternal cause/source of the Kyana of the Trinity, and the eternal cause/source of the Qnoma of the Son and the Qnoma of the Holy Spirit. Son of the nature of His Father means one in the Divine Kyana.
And just to clarify my above statements. My main purpose was to emphasize the pre-eminence of the concept of the person over that of essence. It seems to me that the statement that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the one essence of the Father and the Son implies the pre-eminence of the concept of essence. And that is why I responded by saying that the Father is the source of the Trinity rather than the one essence. The Chaldean creed doesn’t seem - as far as I can see - to be saying anything contradictory to what I am saying.
My understanding of the eternal generation of the Son and eternal procession of the Holy Spirit is in this way:
  • The Qnoma of the Son eternally receives the Kyana and Qnoma of the Father.
  • The Qnoma of the Holy Spirit eternally receives the Kyana and Qnoma of the Father from/by/through the Qnoma of the Son.
Though, I admit, I’m not certain if the Church of the East explains it in this way, cause I haven’t yet done enough research on this.

In the Marganitha, Mar Odisho simply puts it like this:​

The Mind (the Church) has called Father and Begetter, because He is the Cause of all, and First. The Son (She) has called Wisdom and Begotten, because He is begotten of the Mind, and by Him everything was made and created. The Life (She) has called, the Holy Spirit and Proceeding, because there is no other Holy Spirit but He.​

He explains further, but doesn’t go too deeply into it.

Hey, maybe we can talk about it tomorrow.

God bless,

Rony
 
Very nice Michael. :rolleyes: And then you seem surprised when people find your posts polemical.
I try to be factually accurate. If you don’t like that I cannot help it one bit.

Perhaps you should start a poll about how polemical people here find my posts, as long as you brought it up. 🙂
…Strangely enough, that cause may, through diligent polemics, entice a few to swim.
I m not trying to entice anyone to do anything.

I am going to state that some here at CAF are pushing people out, in my opinon.

Michael
 
I try to be factually accurate. If you don’t like that I cannot help it one bit.
There is not a blessed thing that I don’t like about your trying to be factually accurate.

I only wish you were more successful in your efforts.
 
Are there any east Syriac explanations of Trinitarian theology?
St. Ephrem:
“The Father is the begetter and the Son begotten from His bosom, the Holy Spirit proceeding from the Father and the Son.”

Council of Seleucia (410):
“…the Holy Living Spirit, the Holy Living Paraclete, Who proceeds from the Father and the Son.” (Lamy, “Concilium Seleucia”, Louvain, 1868).
 
St. Ephrem:
“The Father is the begetter and the Son begotten from His bosom, the Holy Spirit proceeding from the Father and the Son.”

Council of Seleucia (410):
“…the Holy Living Spirit, the Holy Living Paraclete, Who proceeds from the Father and the Son.” (Lamy, “Concilium Seleucia”, Louvain, 1868).
Please don’t quote St. Ephrem. You will only distort his teachings.
 
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