Eastern Catholics how/why is Union with Rome is worth being divided from all the other Orthodox Patriarchs?

  • Thread starter Thread starter 1Tim215Mommy
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
But similar to us? I don’t think there is any part of the Latin Church which takes an apophatic view as we do.
Actually, brother, from my understanding, the Latin Catholic mystics do. However, I would agree that such spirituality is considered “specialized” within Latin Catholicism, whereas in the Eastern Tradition, it is normative for all.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Nevertheless, I need to respond because here you’ve hit upon one of my pet peeves. Please realize that I’m not saying this out of naivete … I realize that “leaving Orthodoxy” = “apostasizing from Orthodoxy” is one valid definition/usage of “apostasy”. Nevertheless, I find it inappropraite (just as I would if it were used in the opposite direction) … might I suggest you substitute the word “schisming”?
Given that this forum seems to consider Orthodoxy (both Eastern and Oriental) to be distinct religions, it seems apostasy is appropriate.
 
Because the Church is in reality one.

The question can be reversed, why is it worth being divided from Rome?
The OP already asked this question, in essence, when she asked what Eastern Catholicism offered that Orthodoxy doesn’t. Of course that thread was merged into the thread where she asked the opposite question, but people still tried to answer it.
The issue of primacy is both a reason for union and a reason for disunion depending on the belief of each particular Church. The issue is to accept the teaching authority of the Councils in union with the Roman Pontiff or rather to accept the teaching authority of the Councils without the concurrence of the Roman Pontiff. It was declared at Florence that the Roman Pontiff is the “father and teacher of all Christians”. For the Roman Pontiff to have teaching authority means that dogmatic definitions must have approval of Rome, yet some of the eastern Church have contradicted that saying that the Roman Church is heretical because of the filioque.
Ok, but we don’t accept Florence, so why should we accept that councils must be approved by Rome.
Interestingly this is the first time I’ve seen someone admit that the requirement for approval by Rome is the result of a (much) later council, and was not how the pre-schism Church worked.
If one believes that what was said to Peter applies to each Apostle, it certainly does not exclude the Roman Pontiff.“thou art Peter; and upon this rock” (cf. Mt 16:18-19)
“strengthening his brothers” (cf. Lk 22:32)
“Feed my lambs… Tend my sheep” (Jn 21:15-17) implications.
“As the Father has sent me, so I send you” (Jn 20:21; cf. 17:18)
And we do believe it applies to each apostle, and from there to all in a position of authority. But it does not protect them from error. Arius was a bishop and a successor to the apostles, yet he became a heresiarch. In so doing he lost all authority he had once been given. And because we believe in an equality of bishops we do not believe that the See of Rome, by virtue of its occupant, is exempt from this.
 
Yes, brother, I did understand his point – it’s just that it was not the same point I was making by bringing up the fact that I have been Orthodox a LOT longer than he has.

And his statement about no longer being able to speak about the Orthodox Church reliably just because I have joined the Catholic communion is hogwash. The fact is, the Catholic Church does not insist that we give up our Orthodox roots when we become Catholic. So we can perfectly live in the spirit and theology of Orthodoxy within the Catholic Church.

Of course, the experience of a Catholic becoming Orthodox, especially a Latin Catholic going into Orthodoxy (Oriental or Eastern) will be different because one will (often, though not always) be indoctrinated into believing that one’s former peculiarly Latin Catholic roots are to be rejected.

Blessings,
Marduk
Good point. However, I would assume that dzheremi’s point (not, of course, that I can speak for you dzheremi :o :cool:) was that length-of-time in a church/communion can be made out to mean something that it doesn’t. Perhaps you’ll understand his point better if you consider how many years Pierre Teilhard de Chardin spent in the Catholic Church.
 
This discussion of being a member in one religion or another is largely irrelevant. No one made a false claim about affiliation; the claims were about experience with and knowledge of the religion and its members. That experience and knowledge does not simply evaporate when a person is “out”. And surely no one would suggest that membership imparts some special insight that is somehow lost when a person is “out”.

A better argument might be that this have changed so much since a person had left that their knowledge is no longer current. Or that for all the time spent, one never really worked to develop the insight. But membership of itself is a poor proxy for actual experience and knowledge.
Even disregarding the fact that he makes a false claim about affiliation every time he posts with this “Orthodox in communion with Rome” hooey in his profile (which, as I’ve said elsewhere, is totally his right to do, if that’s how he conceives things), the issue to me is not length of experience. That’s just a historical fact that is neither here nor there, and I would never argue as he seems to think I have (from what I can see of what other people have quoted) that I somehow have more experience than he does in my short time being Orthodox compared to his long time of having been Orthodox. My point is rather this: If you are not Orthodox, regardless of how long you were Orthodox, your opinion on Orthodox matters is to be considered on the same level as any other non-Orthodox person’s opinion. Why? Because Orthodoxy is not someone’s intellectual, cultural, or other form of personal property. You don’t take it with you when you leave. Orthodoxy is – in addition to the mindsets, approaches and stances that Mardukm likes to claim that he has preserved even after coming into union with Rome (hence, “Orthodox in communion with Rome”) – actual, real, physical, tangible communion with those who hold and guard the Orthodox faith. To be Orthodox requires continual communion in and with the actual Orthodox Church. Leaving it for something else, as posters Mardukm and Copticsolider as well as other have done, means you’re not Orthodox anymore. Period.

And, by the way, just as an aside, there should also be something said about what inevitably happens in leaving one communion for the other – this is something I do have intimate experience of, of course, and would like make mention of to point out a fundamental difference between Mardukm, et al. and myself. Not to speak for any of them or anyone else other than myself, but I cannot help but notice that inherent in this idea of being “Orthodox in communion with Rome” is this idea that it is possible to apostasize from one church to the other (or ‘translate’, as some like to put it) without leaving anything of the old life behind. It is, in this view, essentially coming into a new relationship with another communion, but without having any kind of metania involved. I’d just like to point out that this is hogwash, both for those who leave Orthodoxy and those who leave Catholicism. For those who once truly believed in their former confession (as I have no doubt that the people here did, myself included), there is the renunciation of former errors to be made as a precondition of baptism and reception into the new church. You can tell this by paying attention to when Mardukm writes “When I was in the COC, I used to believe ______ (generally something about Catholicism that he now does not believe).” Of course, this is nothing that one wouldn’t expect, right? He was apparently taught these things as an Orthodox Christian and has now come to disbelieve them in his journey to becoming a Catholic Christian (not that disbelief in any particular point makes a person one or the other; only that this is a natural evolution, so to speak, as you come to accept things that were previously unthinkable), just as I was taught certain things as a Roman Catholic Christian that I have now come to disbelieve. The point is that by virtue of now having changed my stances away from what was taught to me in Catholicism (about the Roman Pope and ecclesiology, about Triadology, about many other things), I have actually literally moved away from that faith to the point that I do not believe in many points of it that the RCC says I would need to in order to be actually counted as a Roman Catholic Christian. So, therefore, out of respect for what Rome requires its believers to assent to, I do not dare call myself “Catholic” in mixed company such as this message board (also I just don’t want to, but y’know).

(cont’d. below)
 
Now, you may say: “But, Jeremy, you’ve also said elsewhere that Orthodoxy is not defined by its relation to Roman Catholicism, so how could Mardukm be less Orthodox by giving up prejudices against the RCC that he inherited in the COC?”, and you’d be right. But in his case and the case of all converts to Catholicism from Orthodoxy, regardless of their former church, conversion to Catholicism involves adopting new standards by which beliefs are judged (i.e., not the Orthodox standards that he would have encountered when he was actually Orthodox), new ecclesiological principles, and many other new beliefs that are absent from Orthodoxy. For instance, I’ve never heard an Orthodox person (and here I’m talking about people who were Orthodox for much longer than Mardukm was, and stayed Orthodox til the end) suggest that many of the differences between RCism and Orthodoxy are just “saying the same thing, but with different expressions”, as I often run into here from both people who have been Orthodox and now are not and from people who never were. I want to be clear here that I think that is at least plausible in some cases (i.e., we really may be saying the same thing, when you get right down to it), but certainly not in all the cases that I’ve seen it invoked here. In fact, this is something that I even felt back when I was still RC, that we (meaning the RCC) were at a disadvantage when talking to the Orthodox about reunion, since to reunite with us would involve the Orthodox adopting new beliefs that they claim they never had, while for us to become Orthodox would involve shedding new beliefs that are at best superfluous (in the Orthodox view). And as the RC communion shows with the attempt to remove Latinizations introduced within its Eastern lung, it is much healthier to remove what is harmful than to add new, potentially harmful things that will only have to be removed later when people wake up and realize that their patrimony has been marred by these things.

But in some cases we have people here who claim to cling to their patrimony anyway, in which case there is no use talking to them, as they refuse to be shaken from their false belief that they’ve never really left anything, despite the fact that they are no longer in communion with the actual Orthodox Church, and hence can no longer be called Orthodox (because, remember, Orthodoxy is nobody’s personal property, so it doesn’t go with you should you end up elsewhere). I know that none of this will convince anyone here as to what is involved in leaving Orthodoxy to become Catholic or vice-versa, but having done one of those moves, in my personal experience this is what it is. I know already it will not be accepted, because Mardukm tells a better story that fits with what Catholics already want to believe, but well…what he says is just not true, even if it’s based on 45 years of having been Orthodox. The years since then, spent in communion with Rome and not with Orthodoxy, have colored his perspective and he can not be counted on to provide an Orthodox opinion due to this change of mind(set), just as I am not the place to go for what a faithful RC believes, only perhaps what one who was once RC and is now COC believes. Sorry.
 
The OP already asked this question, in essence, when she asked what Eastern Catholicism offered that Orthodoxy doesn’t. Of course that thread was merged into the thread where she asked the opposite question, but people still tried to answer it.

Ok, but we don’t accept Florence, so why should we accept that councils must be approved by Rome.
Interestingly this is the first time I’ve seen someone admit that the requirement for approval by Rome is the result of a (much) later council, and was not how the pre-schism Church worked.

And we do believe it applies to each apostle, and from there to all in a position of authority. But it does not protect them from error. Arius was a bishop and a successor to the apostles, yet he became a heresiarch. In so doing he lost all authority he had once been given. And because we believe in an equality of bishops we do not believe that the See of Rome, by virtue of its occupant, is exempt from this.
It is logical that the See of Rome is not exempt, and that is also the teaching of the Catholic Church (refer to Vatican I), that the Pope cannot act over and against the entire tradition of the Church. However, today, the Pope is being excluded as teaching authority, which I believe is intended by the eastern Church to provide a remedy for error.

Rome maintained the teaching authority from the beginning according to Vatican I declaration. But I have read that the Pope did not exert ordinary jurisdiction universally, for the east appointed its own bishops and established its own canons, yet he was sometimes called to resolve disputes in matters of faith. An early historical reference I have seen is to Pope Leo II ratifying the council.

But I am referring in that post to the the agreements with the Greeks. It is topic of discussion as to how the Church worked in the first millennium. I suspect that discussion will not yield union because the fracture occurs during the first millennium, and because the Russian Orthodox Church refuses to discuss it. (It is known that the Pope accepted the reinstatement of Photius as Patriarch.)

I would not deny what was declared at Florence, even though the majority in the eastern Church rejected it later. Vatican I (Session 4) itself declared several agreements, Constantinople IV (869 not 879), Lyons (1245), Florence (1438), all these occur after the first seven ecumenical councils:So the fathers of the fourth council of Constantinople, following the footsteps of their predecessors, published this solemn profession of faith:
Code:
The first condition of salvation is to maintain the rule of the true faith. And since that saying of our lord Jesus Christ, You are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church [55] , cannot fail of its effect, the words spoken are confirmed by their consequences. For in the apostolic see the catholic religion has always been preserved unblemished, and sacred doctrine been held in honour. Since it is our earnest desire to be in no way separated from this faith and doctrine, we hope that we may deserve to remain in that one communion which the apostolic see preaches, for in it is the whole and true strength of the christian religion [56] .
What is more, with the approval of the second council of Lyons, the Greeks made the following profession:
Code:
"The holy Roman church possesses the supreme and full primacy and principality over the whole catholic church. She truly and humbly acknowledges that she received this from the Lord himself in blessed Peter, the prince and chief of the apostles, whose successor the Roman pontiff is, together with the fullness of power. And since before all others she has the duty of defending the truth of the faith, so if any questions arise concerning the faith, it is by her judgment that they must be settled." [57]
Then there is the definition of the council of Florence:
Code:
"The Roman pontiff is the true vicar of Christ, the head of the whole church and the father and teacher of all Christians; and to him was committed in blessed Peter, by our lord Jesus Christ, the full power of tending, ruling and governing the whole church." [58]
55 Mt 16, 18.

56 From Pope Hormisdas’s formula of the year 517 (D no. 171), see above p. 157 n. 1. [1 The Profession of faith of the other fathers added: and I pledge and swear true obedience to the Roman Pontiff, successor of blessed Peter the Prince of the Apostles, and Vicar of Jesus Christ.]

57 From Michael Palaeologus’s profession of faith which was read out at the second Council of Lyons (D no. 466).

58 Council of Florence, session 6 (see above p. 528). S Bernard, Ep. (Letters) 190 (PL 182, 1053).
 
It is logical that the See of Rome is not exempt, and that is also the teaching of the Catholic Church (refer to Vatican I), that the Pope cannot act over and against the entire tradition of the Church. However, today, the Pope is being excluded as teaching authority, which I believe is intended by the eastern Church to provide a remedy for error.
The Pope is excluded as a teaching authority because he is not a member of our Communion. He absolutely does not have any more teaching authority than say the Dalai Lama. He may have some wisdom to share but his opinion on the teachings of our church doesn’t matter.
Rome maintained the teaching authority from the beginning according to Vatican I declaration. But I have read that the Pope did not exert ordinary jurisdiction universally, for the east appointed its own bishops and established its own canons, yet he was sometimes called to resolve disputes in matters of faith. An early historical reference I have seen is to Pope Leo II ratifying the council.
But I am referring in that post to the the agreements with the Greeks. It is topic of discussion as to how the Church worked in the first millennium. I suspect that discussion will not yield union because the fracture occurs during the first millennium, and because the Russian Orthodox Church refuses to discuss it. (It is known that the Pope accepted the reinstatement of Photius as Patriarch.)
I would not deny what was declared at Florence, even though the majority in the eastern Church rejected it later. Vatican I (Session 4) itself declared several agreements, Constantinople IV (869 not 879), Lyons (1245), Florence (1438), all these occur after the first seven ecumenical councils:So the fathers of the fourth council of Constantinople, following the footsteps of their predecessors, published this solemn profession of faith:
Code:
The first condition of salvation is to maintain the rule of the true faith. And since that saying of our lord Jesus Christ, You are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church [55] , cannot fail of its effect, the words spoken are confirmed by their consequences. For in the apostolic see the catholic religion has always been preserved unblemished, and sacred doctrine been held in honour. Since it is our earnest desire to be in no way separated from this faith and doctrine, we hope that we may deserve to remain in that one communion which the apostolic see preaches, for in it is the whole and true strength of the christian religion [56] .
What is more, with the approval of the second council of Lyons, the Greeks made the following profession:
Code:
"The holy Roman church possesses the supreme and full primacy and principality over the whole catholic church. She truly and humbly acknowledges that she received this from the Lord himself in blessed Peter, the prince and chief of the apostles, whose successor the Roman pontiff is, together with the fullness of power. And since before all others she has the duty of defending the truth of the faith, so if any questions arise concerning the faith, it is by her judgment that they must be settled." [57]
Then there is the definition of the council of Florence:
Code:
"The Roman pontiff is the true vicar of Christ, the head of the whole church and the father and teacher of all Christians; and to him was committed in blessed Peter, by our lord Jesus Christ, the full power of tending, ruling and governing the whole church." [58]
55 Mt 16, 18.

56 From Pope Hormisdas’s formula of the year 517 (D no. 171), see above p. 157 n. 1. [1 The Profession of faith of the other fathers added: and I pledge and swear true obedience to the Roman Pontiff, successor of blessed Peter the Prince of the Apostles, and Vicar of Jesus Christ.]
57 From Michael Palaeologus’s profession of faith which was read out at the second Council of Lyons (D no. 466).

58 Council of Florence, session 6 (see above p. 528). S Bernard, Ep. (Letters) 190 (PL 182, 1053).
Just because some Greeks agreed with something is not the same as the entire Orthodox Church agreeing. You mention four councils that we explicitly do not recognize as part of Holy Tradition. What Greeks said there is of no more accord than what the Pope may declare regarding councils.
 
The Pope is excluded as a teaching authority because he is not a member of our Communion. He absolutely does not have any more teaching authority than say the Dalai Lama. He may have some wisdom to share but his opinion on the teachings of our church doesn’t matter.

Just because some Greeks agreed with something is not the same as the entire Orthodox Church agreeing. You mention four councils that we explicitly do not recognize as part of Holy Tradition. What Greeks said there is of no more accord than what the Pope may declare regarding councils.
Yet the Pope is not a member of your Communion for a reason.

And exactly because some Greeks agreed with something is the reason that eastern Catholic churches exist.
 
I doubt you’ll find disagreement on either of those points, Vico.

General comment on the thread: Hopefully all of these posts taken together (even the seemingly off topic ones by Mardukm, Copticsoldier and me) will show the OP a better answer to her question than any particular one post would; namely, that Catholics do not have the same understanding of what communion and church membership actually is as the Orthodox do, so it’s apparently no problem in their eyes to cut off communion with Orthodox patriarchs in order to be in communion with Rome. After all, as Vico rightly points out, that is how/why the Eastern Catholic churches exist in the first place.
 
Yet the Pope is not a member of your Communion for a reason.

And exactly because some Greeks agreed with something is the reason that eastern Catholic churches exist.
What did they agree with, why & when?
 
And yet Catholics and Protestants approach theological issues from the same viewpoint. You both try to reason your way to God. Afterall what is 5-point Calvinism but a bunch of reasoned syllogisms based on pre-existing Catholic precepts (I’m not saying they are correct, only reasoned).

We’ve also seen Catholicism and Protestantism continue to influence each other. You have a branch of the Catholic Church which has followed the antinomianism of the so called “mainline”, you have the Charismatic Catholics who have followed the spirituality of the Pentecostals, you have the ultra-montanists who follow their authority bullheadedly like the Sola scripturists.

But similar to us? I don’t think there is any part of the Latin Church which takes an apophatic view as we do.
Do you and most Orthodox really believe that an apophatic approach to theology is the deciding factor when comparing theologies? The Latin West and the East always took a different approach on this issue, even when in full communion…was our faith completely distinct and heretical, when compared to Orthodoxy, even before the Great Schism? Who cares if the approach is similar on some level if the faith is completely different. From a Catholic perspective, I can list literally HUNDREDS of distinct heresies professed by the various Protestant bodies, but when I (and the bishops of my Church) look at Orthodoxy, we see a handful of “heretical” beliefs at best (your rejection of papal primacy being the main one)…everything else is a difference of approach, theology, discipline, or spirituality, but not of fundamental Truth. Certainly you will find similarities between aspects of Catholicism and various Protestant bodies, but I don’t understand why the Orthodox consider such things as the Real Presence, the Eucharistic sacrifice, the necessity of sacraments, the institution of a priesthood, apostolic succession, the intercession of saints, the perpetual virginity of the Theotokos, the veneration of icons, the deification of man, unimportant in these discussions. These are all things that are vital to both Catholicism and Orthodoxy, which we share (even if we approach them differently), which Protestants reject. For Catholics the Eucharist is the “source and summit” of our faith - as the mystical extension of the Incarnation - and for the Orthodox this also seems to be true…yet most Protestant bodies reduce it to a symbolic commemoration at best. Do you think the average Latin Catholic has ever heard the term “scholastic”? Of course not. All he or she knows is that Christ is truly present in the Eucharist, and that this is also true for the Orthodox but not for Protestants.

Besides, your argument completely falls flat when it comes to groups such as the Pentecostals, which is by far the largest growing branch of Christianity in the Third World (including traditionally Catholic areas). I know from first hand experience that Pentecostals reject “reason” and rely on mystical experience…in the charismatic sense, not the Eastern sense. The theological debates of the Reformation would be lost on them. They are no longer part of that tradition.

Also, as Marduk pointed out, Latin Catholicism has its own venerable tradition of mysticism whcih is very apophatic…the Carmelite mystics for example.
 
For all I know, this is true (about modern Evangelicals). I do not keep up with all the permutations of that belief, so there is probably some really wacky stuff out there. I was probably subconsciously thinking of mainline Protestants, since that’s historically what Protestantism consists of. Of course I guess these newer mainline denominations are themselves generally offshoots of mainline denominations, aren’t they? So the same principle still applies, it just results in something that is even more diluted.

To that end, there is something to be said for the relativity of it all. I’ve had similar discussions off board with Oriental Christians of various churches (Catholic and Orthodox) wherein the conclusion was basically that if the EO and OO did not both have Rome to compare each other to, it is possible that we would not see one another as being very close at all. But that’s not the world as it is, I suppose. (I mean that as no offense to Rome or its believers; it’s just another way of looking at this question of the relative closeness of one communion or church to another.)

Sure, but is this in comparison to the Pentecostals you mentioned, or an observation of both in their own right? That’s kinda what I’m getting at here – it depends on what the standard of comparison is. Certainly, I would say that Orthodoxy has more in common with Roman Catholicism if I was to adopt your signposts as a measurement of relative distance or closeness (e.g., do the have some developed theology regarding the Eucharist, or do they celebrate Easter, etc). But on my own (or, rather, separate from that standard), I don’t really have any reason to do so. Certainly the Orthodox Church is not minimalist such that any developed theology is taken as an automatic point of contact, so we’d have to look at and compare the substance of what is believed, and that is precisely why I mention the idea of differing approaches; as in the Lutheran consubstantiation example, Western Christianity whether Catholic or Protestant often concerns itself with things that the East does not. I don’t think that’s an accident, and I also do not think that it is something that makes Catholicism similar to Orthodoxy just because Protestants don’t generally know enough or bother to do the same.

So I guess I agree with you in some ways, but still agree most with me. 😃
I can’t speak for Orthodoxy, but the “signposts”, to use your term, that the bishops of my Church emphasize suggest that Orthodoxy and Catholicism share much in common than do Catholicism and Protestantism. I can only speak from the perspective of my Church. For Catholics, the Eucharist is the “source and summit” of our faith - it is the mystical continuation of the Incarnation - it is the re-presentation of the very sacrifice of Christ…it is a true encounter with the living Christ. From a Catholic perspective, Protestantism lacks this…and in fact, the vast majority of Protestants don’t even claim to have any such thing. We do, however, believe that you Orthodox, both Eastern and Oriental, encounter the same Risen Christ and offer the same Eucharistic sacrifice…when it comes down to it, all of these other comparisons are moot, for everything else pales next to the Eucharist and the other mysteries / sacraments which flow from the Eucharistic Christ. This is the very heart of our faith, and we believe we share it with the Orthodox but not with Protestants.

In regards to Pentecostalism, yes it did originate from older Protestant bodies which at some point could be traced back to Catholicism, but I would argue that the tradition they inherited is so diluted at this point that, other than fundamental Christian beliefs which we all share in common, there is little in their approach, spirituality, or theology which could be identified as Latin.
 
I am now curious as to how/why Eastern Catholics feel that being in Union with Rome is worth being divided from all the other Orthodox Patriarchs?
That is a question that is worth thinking about. Let’s go back to the time before the schism of 1054. Now the R Catholics say that the Roman Pope was the supreme and infallible head of the whole Church and had universal jurisdiction. That is the unchangeable RC doctrine according to Vatican I and was supposedly the doctrine before 1054 because RC doctrine can never change. But why then, when Cerularius was excommunicated in 1054, did all of the other Patriarchs of the whole Christian Church, with the exception of the Roman Patriarch, follow Cerularius and remain in communion with him. If they had believed that the Roman Pope had supreme authority, it seems that they would have remained in communion with the Roman Pope and not with Cerularius and his successors?
 
That is a question that is worth thinking about. Let’s go back to the time before the schism of 1054. Now the R Catholics say that the Roman Pope was the supreme and infallible head of the whole Church and had universal jurisdiction. That is the unchangeable RC doctrine according to Vatican I and was supposedly the doctrine before 1054 because RC doctrine can never change. But why then, when Cerularius was excommunicated in 1054, did all of the other Patriarchs of the whole Christian Church, with the exception of the Roman Patriarch, follow Cerularius and remain in communion with him. If they had believed that the Roman Pope had supreme authority, it seems that they would have remained in communion with the Roman Pope and not with Cerularius and his successors?
Actually, it was rather gradual, and 1054 is not the actual date of schism. It is easily proven that, for example, the Russian Orthodox and the Antiochene Patriarchate had good relations with Rome a few centuries beyond this point. I think what really did it was the slaughter of many Latin Catholics by Eastern Orthodox, and the subsequent slaughter of many Eastern Orthodox by Latin Catholics (i.e., the Crusaders) in the 13th century.

Blessings
 
Actually, it was rather gradual, and 1054 is not the actual date of schism. It is easily proven that, for example, the Russian Orthodox and the Antiochene Patriarchate had good relations with Rome a few centuries beyond this point. I think what really did it was the slaughter of many Latin Catholics by Eastern Orthodox, and the subsequent slaughter of many Eastern Orthodox by Latin Catholics (i.e., the Crusaders) in the 13th century.

Blessings
Correct. It was gradual. However, the point still holds - the other Patriarchs and their successors remained in communion with the successors of Cerularius and not in communion with the Roman Pope who supposedly has infallible and universal jurisdiction and universal primacy over the whole Christian Church.
 
Do you and most Orthodox really believe that an apophatic approach to theology is the deciding factor when comparing theologies? The Latin West and the East always took a different approach on this issue, even when in full communion…was our faith completely distinct and heretical, when compared to Orthodoxy, even before the Great Schism? Who cares if the approach is similar on some level if the faith is completely different. From a Catholic perspective, I can list literally HUNDREDS of distinct heresies professed by the various Protestant bodies, but when I (and the bishops of my Church) look at Orthodoxy, we see a handful of “heretical” beliefs at best (your rejection of papal primacy being the main one)…everything else is a difference of approach, theology, discipline, or spirituality, but not of fundamental Truth. Certainly you will find similarities between aspects of Catholicism and various Protestant bodies, but I don’t understand why the Orthodox consider such things as the Real Presence, the Eucharistic sacrifice, the necessity of sacraments, the institution of a priesthood, apostolic succession, the intercession of saints, the perpetual virginity of the Theotokos, the veneration of icons, the deification of man, unimportant in these discussions. These are all things that are vital to both Catholicism and Orthodoxy, which we share (even if we approach them differently), which Protestants reject. For Catholics the Eucharist is the “source and summit” of our faith - as the mystical extension of the Incarnation - and for the Orthodox this also seems to be true…yet most Protestant bodies reduce it to a symbolic commemoration at best. Do you think the average Latin Catholic has ever heard the term “scholastic”? Of course not. All he or she knows is that Christ is truly present in the Eucharist, and that this is also true for the Orthodox but not for Protestants.
Let’s look at that heresy you accuse Orthodoxy of having. The rejection of Papal Primacy.

Catholics look at this and say it is error on our part, although they can seldom show us where it has led us astray, they point to the certainty they have over X and Y that we don’t have as evidence in the superiority of accepting the Pope.

This heresy you accuse us of is grounded in that different theological perspective. You (by which I mean Roman Catholicism) craves certainty, we accept that there is much that must remain uncertain, and therefore when we encounter an earthly issue we are not bothered by a level of uncertainty in it - it doesn’t affect our faith. If this is a heresy on our part is brought about by that very difference in theological outlook that you seek to downplay.
Besides, your argument completely falls flat when it comes to groups such as the Pentecostals, which is by far the largest growing branch of Christianity in the Third World (including traditionally Catholic areas). I know from first hand experience that Pentecostals reject “reason” and rely on mystical experience…in the charismatic sense, not the Eastern sense. The theological debates of the Reformation would be lost on them. They are no longer part of that tradition.
I’ve been quite close to Pentecostals, attending their service (yes, even in the third world where they are semi-underground). I would even say that I have experienced the Holy Spirit at these events.
They are still very much driven by a scholastic view of things. To be truly Christian you must be baptized in the Holy Spirit, to be baptized in the Holy Spirit X and Y must happen.
I once sat through a Pentecostal sermon on the different types of tongues, and how you can distinguish each from the other (I think there were seven listed, it was some time ago). This is very much the same mindset Catholics have (although I’ll grant you don’t spend your time discussing the different ways in which the Holy Spirit can come down on worshipers)
Also, as Marduk pointed out, Latin Catholicism has its own venerable tradition of mysticism whcih is very apophatic…the Carmelite mystics for example.
Absolutely. You could also point to evidence of a cataphatic mindset in the East (The Nicene Creed is very cataphatic), but it is not the way problems are approached, leading to a gulf between us that I don’t think exists between Catholics and Protestants (even the biggest wingnuts) since you are still approaching the problem largely the same way.
 
Yet the Pope is not a member of your Communion for a reason.

And exactly because some Greeks agreed with something is the reason that eastern Catholic churches exist.
If I might piggyback on that, those who criticize ECs for being both Eastern and Catholic make as much sense as those who criticize WRO for being both Western and Orthoodox … which is not much in my opinion.
 
Given that this forum seems to consider Orthodoxy (both Eastern and Oriental) to be distinct religions, it seems apostasy is appropriate.
When in a frivolous mood, I respond to that with “Welcome to the Internet.” 😃

When in a down-to-earth mood, I respond with “Catholicism ≠ catholic.com.” :no emoticon:
 
Correct. It was gradual. However, the point still holds - the other Patriarchs and their successors remained in communion with the successors of Cerularius and not in communion with the Roman Pope who supposedly has infallible and universal jurisdiction and universal primacy over the whole Christian Church.
The major part of it was the filioque controversy. That was simply unfortunate because both sides simply did not have a good understanding of the different linguistic and theological presuppositions of the other side.

Another issue was the azyme issue, which many EO understood to be doctrinal.

These were the two main issues (Cerularius had also influenced the other Patriarchs into wrongly believing the Catholics were schismatics by sending them letters criticizing the Latins as such). Of course, this rebounded on the matter of papal primacy only insofar as the fact that, due to these two doctrinal issues, they would think the Pope and the Roman communion were heretics. It is understandable (even from the Catholic perspective) that they would not follow a head bishop who they thought was in heresy. To this day, this is the standard of many Orthodox. They do not particularly deny the primacy of the bishop of Rome - it is simply that they are not completely assured of his orthodoxy yet.

So there is an inherent problem with your scenario:
Namely, It presumes that communion with the Pope is an end in and of itself. In truth, it is at least traditional Catholic theologoumena (I.e., beliefs held without formal approval that do not necessarily contradict the dogmas of the Church) that a Pope who teaches heresy is by virtue of that fact no longer the Pope. And it is a CERTAIN Catholic belief that no Christian is bound to follow a Pope if he is teaching heresy. This unwritten Tradition - that a head bishop must be orthodox in order to be followed - is a Catholic principle. The ones who separated from Rome did so not necessarily because they denied the Primacy, but because they thought he was no longer orthodox so that he could not hold the primacy.

You should also consider the possibility that the ecclesiology of the EO might itself have developed Patriarchs in the early Church certainly held more authority than they do today in the EO. The concept of primus inter pares designated actual authority in the early Church, not a mere position of honor. The OO retain that patristic reality and understanding to this day. In theory, anyway, many EO do not.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top