C
Catholic_Dude
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I was discussing Orthodoxy on another thread but it went off track and was closed. Anyway an Orthodox poster pointed out to me some Orthodox Bishops met for a Council of Jerusalem in 1672 and the topic was essentially Protestantism.
catholicity.elcore.net/ConfessionOfDositheus.html
What shocked me about this council is that it was clear these Bishops had a copy of the decrees of Trent sitting on the table next to them because the meat of this council is clearly taken directly from the decrees of Trent.
What was interesting is that it does mention Original Sin in the way the Catholic Church teaches, here is a short quote,[Baptism] is necessary even for infants, since they also are subject to original sin, and without Baptism are not able to obtain its remission. … And forasmuch as infants are men, and as such need salvation; needing salvation, they need also Baptism. And those that are not regenerated, since they have not received the remission of hereditary sin, are, of necessity, subject to eternal punishment, and consequently cannot without Baptism be saved; so that even infants ought, of necessity, to be baptised.While this is perfectly in line with Catholic teaching, I have seen Orthodox teach that this concept of original sin is a “Roman Catholic thing” and not what the Orthodox believe. From a well respected Orthodox book called Orthodox Dogmatic Theology it says this about Original Sin:Roman Catholic theologians consider that the consequence of the fall was the removal from men of a supernatural gift of God’s grace, after which man remained in his “natural” condition, his nature not harmed but only brought into disorder because flesh, the bodily side, has come to dominate over the spiritual side. Original sin, in this view, consists of the fact that the guilt before God of Adam and Eve has passed to all men.
… …
Thus, original sin is understood by Orthodox theology as a sinful inclination which has entered into mankind and become its spiritual disease.
In Orthodox Dogmatic Theology it clearly contrasts the loss of sanctifying grace (Catholic) with the “sinful inclination” (Orthodox) and given information like this I see an inconsistency here between Orthodox teaching. In the first it clearly says infants lack something (grace in their soul) that prevents them from entering Heaven, in the second instance I see it as a “sinful inclination” while the “lacking something” falling into the Catholic definition.
Back to the Council of Jerusalem 1672:
It mentions “seven” Sacraments, though Im not sure if this was ever disputed.
It mentioned “transubstantiation” by name, including “accidents” and “substance” as well as Eucharistic Adoration.
It mentions what is clearly purgatory, though it doesnt use the term.
It mentions ONLY the Deutero-Canonical books which the Catholic Church accepts.
Overall there was not much, if anything, objectionable to Catholic theology, in fact it was clearly drafted with a copy of the decrees of Trent on the table next to them.
Now the question is, do Eastern Orthodox really accept this Council as authoritative and binding? I ask this because each of the issues listed above I have seen disputed/rejected by Orthodox around here calling it Latin teachings and concepts that are foreign to Orthodoxy.
catholicity.elcore.net/ConfessionOfDositheus.html
What shocked me about this council is that it was clear these Bishops had a copy of the decrees of Trent sitting on the table next to them because the meat of this council is clearly taken directly from the decrees of Trent.
What was interesting is that it does mention Original Sin in the way the Catholic Church teaches, here is a short quote,[Baptism] is necessary even for infants, since they also are subject to original sin, and without Baptism are not able to obtain its remission. … And forasmuch as infants are men, and as such need salvation; needing salvation, they need also Baptism. And those that are not regenerated, since they have not received the remission of hereditary sin, are, of necessity, subject to eternal punishment, and consequently cannot without Baptism be saved; so that even infants ought, of necessity, to be baptised.While this is perfectly in line with Catholic teaching, I have seen Orthodox teach that this concept of original sin is a “Roman Catholic thing” and not what the Orthodox believe. From a well respected Orthodox book called Orthodox Dogmatic Theology it says this about Original Sin:Roman Catholic theologians consider that the consequence of the fall was the removal from men of a supernatural gift of God’s grace, after which man remained in his “natural” condition, his nature not harmed but only brought into disorder because flesh, the bodily side, has come to dominate over the spiritual side. Original sin, in this view, consists of the fact that the guilt before God of Adam and Eve has passed to all men.
… …
Thus, original sin is understood by Orthodox theology as a sinful inclination which has entered into mankind and become its spiritual disease.
In Orthodox Dogmatic Theology it clearly contrasts the loss of sanctifying grace (Catholic) with the “sinful inclination” (Orthodox) and given information like this I see an inconsistency here between Orthodox teaching. In the first it clearly says infants lack something (grace in their soul) that prevents them from entering Heaven, in the second instance I see it as a “sinful inclination” while the “lacking something” falling into the Catholic definition.
Back to the Council of Jerusalem 1672:
It mentions “seven” Sacraments, though Im not sure if this was ever disputed.
It mentioned “transubstantiation” by name, including “accidents” and “substance” as well as Eucharistic Adoration.
It mentions what is clearly purgatory, though it doesnt use the term.
It mentions ONLY the Deutero-Canonical books which the Catholic Church accepts.
Overall there was not much, if anything, objectionable to Catholic theology, in fact it was clearly drafted with a copy of the decrees of Trent on the table next to them.
Now the question is, do Eastern Orthodox really accept this Council as authoritative and binding? I ask this because each of the issues listed above I have seen disputed/rejected by Orthodox around here calling it Latin teachings and concepts that are foreign to Orthodoxy.