The apostles taught that “eating blood” was a sin, in accordance with the OT commandment (older than the Mosaic Law itself).
“But you shall not eat flesh with its life, that is, its blood” (Gen. 9:4).
“Therefore my judgment is that we should not trouble those of the Gentiles who turn to God,
but should write to them to abstain from the things polluted by idols, and from sexual immorality, and from what has been strangled, and from blood” (Acts 15:19-20).
But, Jesus says, “Whoever feeds on my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day” (John 6:54).
The Catholic Church teaches that the Eucharist is the literal body and blood of Christ. If the apostles prohibited the consumption of blood, then why would they permit the consumption of the blood of Christ? Doesn’t their prohibition of blood imply that the “blood of Christ” is not literal?