Ecumenical Councils and Eastern Catholics

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TrentCath:
Ok sir, you are a serious person and I will (and have) treated you seriously.

What would be, if I may ask, the one main issue that constitutes a dogma that you feel Eastern Catholics (or some) reject or else fail to maintain to the fullest as such?

This issue hits close to home with me as I’ve relatives who have suffered and died for the Catholic faith as Eastern Catholics.

So I take this seriously as well.

Alex
 
Dear brother Alex,
Was it not Bl Pope John XXIII who once said, “I am only infallible when I speak ex cathedra . . . and I will never speak ex cathedra!”

Apart from the canonization of saints, I don’t think you will find a pope in the very distant future in a hurry to make any more ex cathedra statements . . .
Actually, that the canonization of saints falls under the purview of “papal infallibility” was explicitly discussed at Vatican 1, and explicitly left out of the definition. I am not sure if it’s considered a non-dogmatic doctrine or a sure theological opinion. I am leaning towards the latter. In any case, if it falls under the purview of “papal infallibility,” the canonization of saints is one of the most obvious demonstrations that “papal infallibility” has a collegial character.👍

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Ok sir, you are a serious person and I will (and have) treated you seriously. Thanks, I try 😛

What would be, if I may ask, the one main issue that constitutes a dogma that you feel Eastern Catholics (or some) reject or else fail to maintain to the fullest as such? If I had to pick one I’d say the most self-evident was Papal Supremacy and Infallibility, followed closely by the definition of original sin given by the council of trent, pre-destination (or at least i know the Orthodox arent fond of it), the indissoluability of marriage (again I may be wrong but I know the Orthodox disagree) indulgences and then of course the Canon of Scripture

This issue hits close to home with me as I’ve relatives who have suffered and died for the Catholic faith as Eastern Catholics. I’m both sorry and ‘happy’ to hear that if thats the right word? Sorry in that death is always a tragic thing but happy in that there is no greater sacrifice than to lay down your life for Christ

So I take this seriously as well.

Alex
 
Dear brother Alex,

Actually, that the canonization of saints falls under the purview of “papal infallibility” was explicitly discussed at Vatican 1, and explicitly left out of the definition. I am not sure if it’s considered a non-dogmatic doctrine or a sure theological opinion. I am leaning towards the latter. In any case, if it falls under the purview of “papal infallibility,” the canonization of saints is one of the most obvious demonstrations that “papal infallibility” has a collegial character.👍

Blessings,
Marduk
You know you really are so very wonderful!!! 🙂

I hope that a future Pope might one day declare the collegial character of infallibility as an infallible dogma! 😉

Alex
 
You know you really are so very wonderful!!! 🙂

I hope that a future Pope might one day declare the collegial character of infallibility as an infallible dogma! 😉

Alex
Ludwig Ott thought that it already was de fide.
The totality of the Bishops is infallible, when they, either assembled in general council or scattered over the earth, propose a teaching of faith or morals as one to be held by all the faithful. (De fide.)
Ott, Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma, p. 299 (bold print his). For defense he references the constant teaching of the Church, rather than an explicit definition.
 
Me: Go to an Armenian Apostolic Liturgy some time and you’ll find that after 1700 years of separation and more or less complete independence from us, most of the time in isolation (with exceptions like during the Crusades, when ties to the West were temporarily re-strengthened), the faith is pretty much identical.
TrentCath: I’d be very surprised if they taught Papal Infallibility, Papal Supremacy, the definition of Original Sin according to the church, indulgences and so on. Therefore even if it could be shown they hadn’t fallen into heresy, they don’t possess the fullness of the truth
The Armenians possess the fullness of the Faith as held by the entire Church in the 4th century (a Christological declaration by their Catholicos in 1994 stated that they do not hold Monophysitism, never have - a historically debatable claim - and that there is no Christological reason for separation from Rome). As far as I know they have undergone little to no doctrinal development, a statement for which someone more knowledgable about their history like Marduk may take me to task for. If you believe that they do not possess the fullness of truth, then it follows that the early Church (Greek and Roman) in the 4th century did not possess the fullness of truth either.

Doctrinal development, the way it’s been usually explained, means making truth more explicit or making theology more rigorous rather than learning new truths, so you can’t say that a less developed state is not the “fullness of truth” compared to the more developed state.
 
One could also say that it was the West’s involvement with the councils through its representative delegates to ensure Western PARTICIPATION and later approval by Rome that gave them their ecumenical character.
What about the council of 381 for example? No westerner was present.
  • It was purely a local council in the East… (for 60+ years I might add).
  • Alexandria didn’t approve of that council
  • What ultimately made it ecumenical…way after the fact?
It was confirmed by the pope.
A:
By the same token, the absence of the Orthodox Eastern Churches or else their approval of the “later Latin Councils” is what makes those Latin councils fail the test of ecumenicity for the East (as well as the fact that the issues largely raised by them were of concern to the Latin West - the so-called “union councils” of Lyons and Florence failed precisely because they were not union councils at all, but attempted impositions of Latin theology on the East).

Have a great day!

Alex
That is handled by the article I previously presented. (All emphasis mine)

In Theory

"The presence of all the bishops of the world is an ideal not to be realized, but the presence of a very great majority is desirable for many reasons. A quasi-complete council has the advantage of being a real representation of the whole Church, while a sparsely attended one is only so in law, i.e. the few members present legally represent the many absent, but only represent their juridical power, their ordinary power not being representable. Thus for every bishop absent there is absent an authentic witness of the Faith as it is in his diocese.
    • A free and exhaustive discussion of all objections.
    • An appeal to the universal belief — if existing — witnessed to by all the bishops in council. This, if realized, would render all further discussion superfluous.
    • Unanimity in the final vote, the result either of the universal faith as testified to by the Fathers, or of conviction gained in the debates. It is evident that these four elements in the working of a council generally contribute to its ideal perfection, but it is not less evident that they are not essential to its substance, to its conciliary effectiveness.* If they were necessary many acknowledged councils and decrees would lose their intrinsic authority, because one or other or all of these conditions were wanting.* [snip] "
    i.e. if all the conditions in this theory/ideal was required, and not just a theory or ideal, we wouldn’t have any council, (including those 1st 7) that would be agreed upon down to this day. When you read the entire article I posted (link provided prevously), it demonstrates
    • even in those 1st Eastern councils, the theory/ideal just presented wasn’t adheared to then. For example:
    • presence of all bishops from the West, or even a great number of them wasn’t adheared to
    • discussion/debate and handling objections, by all the bishops of the World in council, wasn’t adheared to
    • witness by all the bishops testifying to their conviction and universal belief in council, wasn’t adheared to
    • Yet the same element that made those councils ecumenical then, is the same element that made the continuing councils ecumenical after those 1st 7 councils.
    The pope’s confirmation.
 
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TrentCath:
OK, so let’s go over these matters.

With respect to the papal dogmas, Eastern Catholics would accept anything any pope would declare as being infallible.

It is just that the Marian dogmas add nothing to our understanding of our Lady from centuries ago, so they come as neither a suprise nor a supplement to anything we’ve always believed about her Person.

As for papal jurisdiction, the Eastern Catholic Churches with their ecclesial particularity and primates/patriarchs have the right to govern themselves as especially laid out in the decree on the EC Churches.

Our patriarch, the Ven. Joseph Cardinal Slipyj was just that and he spent 18 years in Siberia, tortured horribly, for the Catholic faith. Rome’s moves to curb his enthusiasm for Eastern Catholicism were merely political, as we already agree. As the decree on the EC churches affirms, the EC primates share the government of their Particular Churches with the Pope. I don’t believe that is a problem, it never has been and our other great primate, the Ven. Andrew Sheptytsky told Pope St Pius X about our “rights to self-government as a particular Church” to which the holy pope responded, “Then make us of your rights!” (And he gave the Metropolitan full jurisdiction over the Catholics of the then Russian empire). I don’t see nor consider any of this to contradict papal jurisdiction or papal supremacy at any level. It shows a strength of the Catholic Church, not any weakness. Please feel free to take up any further issues with our Patriarch in Lviv, His Beatitude Syatoslav! 🙂

As for Original Sin, we accept that Original Sin (and I feel like one of the bishops writing a letter to Rome iin 1596 . . .) is the impact of Adam’s sin on our human nature that we have inherited from him. It amounts to an absence of grace at our conception which requires that Baptism, Chrismation and the Eucharist be administered to infants.

Our Lady was conceived in the fullness of holiness and grace (as was St John the Baptist, but not on the same level) as shown by our ancient feast-days in honour of these two who were “least unworthy” of our Lord, owing to their central role in salvation history.

I don’t really know what “pre-destination” is but, to me at least, it smacks of a form of Augustinianism that, in its extreme version, is a form of Calvinism. Perhaps you can explain what this means in fact, but you are right - such a term is absent from Eastern Christian Soteriology.

As for indulgences, the Orthodox Catholic East has ALWAYS maintained that works of “supererogation” are needed for our salvation and for that of others, prayers, good works, fasting etc. In response to these, God grants us His Grace and indulgence - but we may never know how much and so must perform these works of faith until our dying breath. The Latin system of indulgences has been reduced and simplified of late. To many EC’s, they smack of a western spiritual “accounting system” where we hold God accountable to respond to our good works.

In addition to forgiveness of sins in Confession, we must do works of supererogation to satisfy God’s justice in having committed sin. This talked about at length in the Orthodox “Confession of Dositheus” and I feel that every Latin Catholic would do well to study that document!

God does require us to “trade in spiritual goods until I return” as our Lord affirmed. If anything, the Latin West has had a much weakened sense of long prayers, fasting (virtually non-existent - for shame!) and other spiritual works.

In fact, the West can teach the East nothing about spiritual enthusiasm for good works, where the chief good work is, of course, PRAYER and asceticism by which we bring under control the sinful urging of our fallen human nature as a result of Original Sin. We must pray “Lord have mercy on me a sinner” until our dying breath.

When I used to collect indulgences, I had a sense that I’ve “paid off” the debt of my sins. I then thought “Well, I’ve nothing to spiritual strive for, I’m in the clear!” And spiritual sloth set into my soul. I’ve since stopped “countiing” partial and plenary indulgences (and the latter, I’ve learned, can only be “real” if there is no attachment to sin in our souls - and who can truthfully ever say that?). So we dedicate ourselves to confessing our sins and doing penance/ascetical works and good works of charity throughout our lives, praying ceaselessly as we go.

This IS the true faith of the Ancient Catholic and Apostolic Church and we should all embrace it (especially your North American confreres in the Latin Church).

As for the Canon of Scripture, there has never been a controversy between East and West on this score.

The Orthodox East accepts all the books of the Old Testament that Rome approves, but it also has about six other books that are included as well. I don’t see how that contradicts anyone or anything. We have always used the Prayer of Manasses liturgically etc. In addition, the inclusion of these books by EC’s is a recent thing and it isn’t “universal” so I don’t know how far one may push this.

In fact, I am looking now at a Ukrainian language bible with the entire OT Orthodox Canon of Scripture (which I’ve enshrined in my study here) and which, in the front, has the Imprimatur not only of the Ukrainian Catholic primate, Patriarch Lubomyr (Husar) but also that of the ROMAN CATHOLIC PRIMATE OF UKRAINE.

So if you or any Latin would like to excommunicate us for our slightly longer canon of Scripture, then please be assured that we are taking your RC primate along with us!

The fact that there are divergent canons of scripture (in addition to the books accepted by all Catholics and Orthodox) shows how it is the Church that defines the bible and no one else.

respectfully submitted under my hand
in the year of Our Lord 2011

Alex
 
What about the council of 381 for example? No westerner was present.
  • It was purely a local council in the East… (for 60+ years I might add).
  • Alexandria didn’t approve of that council
  • What ultimately made it ecumenical…way after the fact?
It was confirmed by the pope.

That is handled by the article I previously presented.

In Theory

"The presence of all the bishops of the world is an ideal not to be realized, but the presence of a very great majority is desirable for many reasons. A quasi-complete council has the advantage of being a real representation of the whole Church, while a sparsely attended one is only so in law, i.e. the few members present legally represent the many absent, but only represent their juridical power, their ordinary power not being representable. Thus for every bishop absent there is absent an authentic witness of the Faith as it is in his diocese.
    • A free and exhaustive discussion of all objections.
    • An appeal to the universal belief — if existing — witnessed to by all the bishops in council. This, if realized, would render all further discussion superfluous.
    • Unanimity in the final vote, the result either of the universal faith as testified to by the Fathers, or of conviction gained in the debates. It is evident that these four elements in the working of a council generally contribute to its ideal perfection, but it is not less evident that they are not essential to its substance, to its conciliary effectiveness.* If they were necessary many acknowledged councils and decrees would lose their intrinsic authority, because one or other or all of these conditions were wanting.* [snip] "
    i.e. if all the conditions in this theory/ideal was required, and not just a theory or ideal, we wouldn’t have any council, (including those 1st 7) that would be agreed upon down to this day. When you read the entire article I posted (link provided prevously), it demonstrates
    • even in those 1st Eastern councils, the theory/ideal just presented wasn’t adheared to then. For example:
    • presence of all bishops from the West, or even a great number of them wasn’t adheared to
    • discussion/debate and handling objections, by all the bishops of the World in council, wasn’t adheared to
    • witness by all the bishops testifying to their conviction and universal belief in council, wasn’t adheared to
    • Yet the same element that made those councils ecumenical then, is the same element that made the continuing councils ecumenical after those 1st 7 councils.
    The pope’s confirmation.

  1. From the Eastern point of view, the pope’s confirmation was/is an integral part of the Ecumenical Conciliar process.

    That doesn’t mean that papal confirmation would ever be accepted as a “stand alone” apart from an Ecumenicall Council.

    The two, papal confirmation and ecumenical conciliarity were BOTH required and it is wrong to separate the two.

    In addition, let’s not stop at ecumenical councils. There were articles of LOCAL councils that were made “ecumenical” by the authority of ecumenical councils and church authority. In fact, when an Orthodox bishop is consecrated, he is obliged to uphold not ONLY the affirmations of the Ecumenical Councils, but also the affirmations of those Local Councils defined as ecumenically binding on the entire Church.

    The fact that the pope was not present at a council at the time a council was held is no argument for anything. The fact is that such a council sought and required (for purposes of validation) the final word of the bishop of Rome on its deliberations before it could be considered truly ecumenical. In fact, if the West had not sent delegates to such a Council, and the West was united to the East, then it would just be natural to get the Patriarch of the West’s approval - without which the decrees would hardly be “ecumenical.” Again, this does not show that the bishop of Rome is a “stand alone” but only an integral factor in the collegial action of the Ecumenical Council.

    Have a great day!

    Alex
 
The Armenians possess the fullness of the Faith as held by the entire Church in the 4th century (a Christological declaration by their Catholicos in 1994 stated that they do not hold Monophysitism, never have - a historically debatable claim - and that there is no Christological reason for separation from Rome). As far as I know they have undergone little to no doctrinal development, a statement for which someone more knowledgable about their history like Marduk may take me to task for. If you believe that they do not possess the fullness of truth, then it follows that the early Church (Greek and Roman) in the 4th century did not possess the fullness of truth either. No, they may have had a fullness of the truth back then (though thats debatable) but having developed no dogma or doctrine in 1700 years cannot now be said to have the ‘full and proper understanding of the deposit of faith’ and therefore the fullness of the truth. If this is of course the case, if they have in fact developed dogmas in as much as they differ from that of Rome are not the 'full and proper understanding of the deposit of faith’

Doctrinal development, the way it’s been usually explained, means making truth more explicit or making theology more rigorous rather than learning new truths, so you can’t say that a less developed state is not the “fullness of truth” compared to the more developed state.See above, also some parts of the deposit of faith can remain ignored or dormant for centuries and then are developed becoming explicit, so that it would seem that they were not even part of the deposit of faith but in fact it was just that many did not know they were part of the deposit of faith
 
No, they may have had a fullness of the truth back then (though thats debatable) but having developed no dogma or doctrine in 1700 years cannot now be said to have the ‘full and proper understanding of the deposit of faith’ and therefore the fullness of the truth. If this is of course the case, if they have in fact developed dogmas in as much as they differ from that of Rome are not the ‘full and proper understanding of the deposit of faith’
Whether you have the fullness of truth depends on when you live? Does truth evolve? Was it the fullness of truth back then, but not now, even though their teaching hasn’t changed?

Sounds like process theology or immanentism to me. Truth is truth. If they had the fullness of truth back then and have stuck to their faith, then they have the fullness of truth now.

On what grounds do you insist that your local doctrinal developments be “kept up with” by other local churches for them not to be heterodox? It’s the same old “everyone has to follow the Latin tradition or go to hell” attitude again; we haven’t declared you unorthodox because you never had a tradition of hesychasm, so don’t call us unorthodox because our history is different than yours.

The Latin tradition is not the only tradition in the Church. That is what Rome teaches.
 
From the Eastern point of view, the pope’s confirmation was/is an integral part of the Ecumenical Conciliar process.

That doesn’t mean that papal confirmation would ever be accepted as a “stand alone” apart from an Ecumenicall Council.
By definition, a council isn’t ecumenical without the pope’s confirmation.
A:
papal confirmation and ecumenical conciliarity were BOTH required and it is wrong to separate the two.
Already addressed in previous post.

it begins with

“The number of bishops present required to constitute an Ecumenical council cannot be strictly defined, nor need it be so deigned, for ecumenicity chiefly depends on co-operation with the head of the Church, and only secondarily on the number of co-operators…[snip]”
A:
In addition, let’s not stop at ecumenical councils. There were articles of LOCAL councils that were made “ecumenical” by the authority of ecumenical councils and church authority. In fact, when an Orthodox bishop is consecrated, he is obliged to uphold not ONLY the affirmations of the Ecumenical Councils, but also the affirmations of those Local Councils defined as ecumenically binding on the entire Church.
I’m not familiar with Orthodox rules in that case. I can only speak to what I know as pertains to local vs ecumenical as a Catholic
A:
The fact that the pope was not present at a council at the time a council was held is no argument for anything.
Never said it was. Popes don’t have to attend councils in order to approve and confirm them as ecumenical.
A:
The fact is that such a council sought and required (for purposes of validation) the final word of the bishop of Rome on its deliberations before it could be considered truly ecumenical. Again, this does not show that the bishop of Rome is a “stand alone” but only an integral factor in the collegial action of the Ecumenical Council.

Have a great day!

Alex
you’re speaking of Constantinople I (381)?

I’m not familiar with the distinction you’re making between ecumenical without the pope, and “truly” ecumenical with the pope?

Without the pope’s approval, there is no ecumenical status to a council for a Catholic
 
Whether you have the fullness of truth depends on when you live? Does truth evolve? Was it the fullness of truth back then, but not now, even though their teaching hasn’t changed? **No and what I said can’t even remotely be interpreted as saying that. Whether you have the fullness of truth or not depends on whether you are the one true church of christ, Rome is that church hence as they departed from Rome they departed from the fulness of the truth **

Sounds like process theology or immanentism to me. Truth is truth. If they had the fullness of truth back then and have stuck to their faith, then they have the fullness of truth now.

On what grounds do you insist that your local doctrinal developments be “kept up with” by other local churches for them not to be heterodox? It’s the same old “everyone has to follow the Latin tradition or go to hell” attitude again; No, No and No. This ridicalous tendency of some to seperate the church into East and West (as if the universal church could be divided!) and play the two’s traditions and dogmas off against each other is unhealthy and foolish. I say again and I will always say if something is true it is NOT ‘greek’ OR ‘Latin’ it is merely true. End of. As to the importance of maintaining the fulness of the deposit of faith as expounded by the Church, I would have hoped that was self-evident… But I refer to the statement of faith of the First Vatican Council at the end of which is stated ’ Likewise
all other things which have been transmitted, defined and declared by the sacred canons and the ecumenical councils, especially the sacred Trent,
I accept unhesitatingly and profess; in the same way
whatever is to the contrary, and whatever heresies have been condemned, rejected and anathematised by the church, I too condemn, reject and anathematise.

This true catholic faith, outside of which none can be saved, which I now freely profess and truly hold, is what I shall steadfastly maintain and confess, by the help of God, in all its completeness and purity until my dying breath, and I shall do my best to ensure [2] that all others do the same. This is what I, the same Pius, promise, vow and swear. So help me God and these holy gospels of God. ’ It appears therefore that ‘keeping up’ is somewhat important then? we haven’t declared you unorthodox because you never had a tradition of hesychasm, **That would be as ridicalous as me calling you unorthodox for not praying the Rosary…**so don’t call us unorthodox because our history is different than yours. I don’t

The Latin tradition is not the only tradition in the Church. See what i said above about diving the church That is what Rome teaches. Indeed true if irrelevant to Dogma and Doctrine
 
The Armenians are just as much the one true Church as we are. They never knowingly or willingly departed from communion with Rome; it was more of just a geographical isolation - the “myth of schism” being perpetuated still. Your claim that Rome holds the true faith is correct, but it does not follow that others who are not Roman Catholic (such as the Armenians) do not.

It seems to me that you are dividing the Church, not me. Yes, there are distinct Eastern and Western traditions. But I have no wish to divide the Roman Catholic Church from those “outside the Church” like the Orthodox and the Armenians. There is just the Catholic Church, regardless of what you want to call it.
 
OK, so let’s go over these matters.

With respect to the papal dogmas, Eastern Catholics would accept anything any pope would declare as being infallible. Good

It is just that the Marian dogmas add nothing to our understanding of our Lady from centuries ago, so they come as neither a suprise nor a supplement to anything we’ve always believed about her Person. Indeed True

As for papal jurisdiction, the Eastern Catholic Churches with their ecclesial particularity and primates/patriarchs have the right to govern themselves as especially laid out in the decree on the EC Churches. **I believe I have quoted enough of Vatican I to render quoting it again pointless but here I go 'So, then,
Code:
if anyone says that
    the Roman pontiff has merely an office of supervision and guidance**, and
        not the full and supreme power of jurisdiction over the whole church, and this
        not only in matters of
            faith and morals, but also in those which concern the
            discipline and government of the church dispersed throughout the whole world; or that 
    he has only the principal part, but not the absolute fullness, of this supreme power; or that
    this power of his is not ordinary and immediate both over all and each of the churches and over all and each of the pastors and faithful:
let him be anathema. ' Whatever the decree meant it certainly did not mean to set up self-governing churches to the exclusion of the 'Supreme and Immediate Power' of the pope
Our patriarch, the Ven. Joseph Cardinal Slipyj was just that and he spent 18 years in Siberia, tortured horribly, for the Catholic faith. Rome’s moves to curb his enthusiasm for Eastern Catholicism were merely political, as we already agree. I merely said that the churches politics regarding Orthodox seemed at times a little foolish, I make no comment on individual cases

I’m moved to hear that tale, be that as it may the churches cannot be called self-governing, they may be granted more independence than some Latin rite bishops but ultimately they are still subordinate to the ‘Supreme, Immediate and Universal’ power of the pope


As for Original Sin, we accept that Original Sin (and I feel like one of the bishops writing a letter to Rome iin 1596 . . .) is the impact of Adam’s sin on our human nature that we have inherited from him. It amounts to an absence of grace at our conception which requires that Baptism, Chrismation and the Eucharist be administered to infants. This isn’t actually the full definition of the council of trent which states '5. If any one denies, that, by the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, which is conferred in baptism, the guilt of original sin is remitted; or even asserts that the whole of that which has the true and proper nature of sin is not taken away; but says that it is only rased, or not imputed; let him be anathema.’ It is clear therefore that the Church teaching is that we also inherit the guilt of original sin not just an ‘absence of grace’.

I don’t really know what “pre-destination” is but, to me at least, it smacks of a form of Augustinianism that, in its extreme version, is a form of Calvinism. Perhaps you can explain what this means in fact, but you are right - such a term is absent from Eastern Christian Soteriology. The Catholic Enyclopedia describes it as ‘Theology restricts the term (predesination) to those Divine decrees which have reference to the supernatural end of rational beings, especially of man. Considering that not all men reach their supernatural end in heaven, but that many are eternally lost through their own fault, there must exist a twofold predestination: (a) one to heaven for all those who die in the state of grace; (b) one to the pains of hell for all those who depart in sin or under God’s displeasure. However, according to present usages to which we shall adhere in the course of the article, it is better to call the latter decree the Divine “reprobation”, so that the term predestination is reserved for the Divine decree of the happiness of the elect’ The Article can be read here For the purposes of this post it suffices to say the the council of trent accepts it as part of the Catholic Faith when it says 'CHAPTER XII.
That a rash presumptuousness in the matter of Predestination is to be avoided.

No one, moreover, so long as he is in this mortal life, ought so far to presume as regards the secret mystery of divine predestination, as to determine for certain that he is assuredly in [Page 40] the number of the predestinate; as if it were true, that he that is justified, either cannot sin any more, or, if he do sin, that he ought to promise himself an assured repentance; for except by special revelation, it cannot be known whom God hath chosen unto Himself. ’

As for indulgences, the Orthodox Catholic East has ALWAYS maintained that works of “supererogation” are needed for our salvation and for that of others, prayers, good works, fasting etc. In response to these, God grants us His Grace and indulgence - but we may never know how much and so must perform these works of faith until our dying breath. The Latin system of indulgences has been reduced and simplified of late. To many EC’s, they smack of a western spiritual “accounting system” where we hold God accountable to respond to our good works. Thats really a simplification of matters read this helpful article on the Catholic Encyclopedia for a good explanation of indulgences
 
God does require us to “trade in spiritual goods until I return” as our Lord affirmed. If anything, the Latin West has had a much weakened sense of long prayers, fasting (virtually non-existent - for shame!) and other spiritual works. Don’t even get me started, the church today, ah well as Our Lady said 'In the end my Immaculate Heart will triumph’

This IS the true faith of the Ancient Catholic and Apostolic Church and we should all embrace it (especially your North American confreres in the Latin Church).Many european bishops and cardinals could do with embracing the true faith of the church as well
As for the Canon of Scripture, there has never been a controversy between East and West on this score.

The Orthodox East accepts all the books of the Old Testament that Rome approves, but it also has about six other books that are included as well. I don’t see how that contradicts anyone or anything. And it has thought it meet that a list of the sacred books be inserted in this decree, lest a doubt may arise in any one’s mind, which are the books that are received by this Synod. They are as set down here below: of the Old Testament: the five books of Moses, to wit, Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy; Josue, Judges, Ruth, four books of Kings, two of Paralipomenon, the first book of Esdras, and the second which is entitled Nehemias; Tobias, Judith, Esther, Job, the Davidical Psalter, consisting of a hundred and fifty psalms; the Proverbs, Ecclesiastes, the Canticle of Canticles, Wisdom, Ecclesiasticus, Isaias, Jeremias, with Baruch; Ezechiel, Daniel; the twelve minor prophets, to wit, Osee, Joel, Amos, Abdias, Jonas, Micheas, Nahum, Habacuc, Sophonias, Aggaeus, Zacharias, Malachias; two books of the Machabees, the first and the second. Of the New Testament: the four Gospels, according to Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John; the Acts of the Apostles written by Luke the Evangelist; fourteen epistles of Paul the apostle, (one) to the Romans, two to the Corinthians, (one) to the Galatians, to the Ephesians, to the Philippians, to the Colossians, two to the Thessalonians, two to Timothy, (one) to Titus, to Philemon, to the Hebrews; two of Peter the apostle, three of John the apostle, one of the apostle James, one of Jude the apostle, and the Apocalypse of John the apostle. But if any one receive not, as sacred and canonical, the said books entire with all their parts, as they have been used to be read in the Catholic Church, and as they are contained in the old Latin vulgate edition;’ Well quite simply either the Council of Trent was correct about what the canon of scripture was or it wasnt?mWe have always used the Prayer of Manasses liturgically etc. In addition, the inclusion of these books by EC’s is a recent thing and it isn’t “universal” so I don’t know how far one may push this.

No one wants to excommunicate anyone

It is God through the Church but I’m sure thats what you meant. Truly though the canon of scripture is that set by the Council of Trent


respectfully submitted under my hand
in the year of Our Lord 2011

Alex
 
The Armenians are just as much the one true Church as we are. They never knowingly or willingly departed from communion with Rome; it was more of just a geographical isolation - the “myth of schism” being perpetuated still. Your claim that Rome holds the true faith is correct, but it does not follow that others who are not Roman Catholic (such as the Armenians) do not.

It seems to me that you are dividing the Church, not me. Yes, there are distinct Eastern and Western traditions. But I have no wish to divide the Roman Catholic Church from those “outside the Church” like the Orthodox and the Armenians. There is just the Catholic Church, regardless of what you want to call it.
Frankly, I’m not sure what point exactly you are making? As for the Armenians I don’t even know how they came into this conversation at all.

As for dividing the church, I make no comment about traditions I am concerned only with Dogmas. If you have an issue with the idea of some being ‘outside of the church’ and the bound up idea of no salvation outside the church go take that up with the million and one councils that have proclaimed that infallibly.
 
From the Eastern point of view, the pope’s confirmation was/is an integral part of the Ecumenical Conciliar process.

That doesn’t mean that papal confirmation would ever be accepted as a “stand alone” apart from an Ecumenicall Council.

The two, papal confirmation and ecumenical conciliarity were BOTH required and it is wrong to separate the two.

In addition, let’s not stop at ecumenical councils. There were articles of LOCAL councils that were made “ecumenical” by the authority of ecumenical councils and church authority. In fact, when an Orthodox bishop is consecrated, he is obliged to uphold not ONLY the affirmations of the Ecumenical Councils, but also the affirmations of those Local Councils defined as ecumenically binding on the entire Church.

The fact that the pope was not present at a council at the time a council was held is no argument for anything. The fact is that such a council sought and required (for purposes of validation) the final word of the bishop of Rome on its deliberations before it could be considered truly ecumenical. In fact, if the West had not sent delegates to such a Council, and the West was united to the East, then it would just be natural to get the Patriarch of the West’s approval - without which the decrees would hardly be “ecumenical.” Again, this does not show that the bishop of Rome is a “stand alone” but only an integral factor in the collegial action of the Ecumenical Council.

Have a great day!
AMEN and AMEN!!!

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother Steve,
By definition, a council isn’t ecumenical without the pope’s confirmation.
By definition, a Council isn’t Ecumenical without the approval of his brother bishops as well.
“The number of bishops present required to constitute an Ecumenical council cannot be strictly defined, nor need it be so deigned, for ecumenicity chiefly depends on co-operation with the head of the Church, and only secondarily on the number of co-operators…[snip]”
As your quote indicates, ecumenicity chiefly depends on the CO-OPERATION with the head, NOT the SOLE approval of the head.
I’m not familiar with the distinction you’re making between ecumenical without the pope, and “truly” ecumenical with the pope?
I don’t see where he made that distinction.
Without the pope’s approval, there is no ecumenical status to a council for a Catholic
Without the approval of the rest of the bishops AS WELL, there is no ecumenical status to a council for a Catholic. That’s what the Official Relatio of Vatican 1, Vatican 2, and our Canons state. The Absolutist Petrine view is not supported by Magisterial Catholic teaching.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother TrentCath,
What would be, if I may ask, the one main issue that constitutes a dogma that you feel Eastern Catholics (or some) reject or else fail to maintain to the fullest as such? If I had to pick one I’d say the most self-evident was Papal Supremacy and Infallibility,
Normally, what Eastern and Oriental Catholics reject are the excesses of the Absolutist Petrine view. I’ve never met an Eastern or Oriental Catholic reject the High Petrine teaching of the Vatican Councils on the papacy.
followed closely by the definition of original sin given by the council of trent,
I don’t know what sources of information you have, but having studied this matter rather thoroughly, I am not aware that any Eastern theological expression of the teaching contradicts any of the doctrinal canons of Trent on Original Sin. Can you point out specifically what you perceive otherwise?
pre-destination (or at least i know the Orthodox arent fond of it)
Can you explain?
the indissoluability of marriage (again I may be wrong but I know the Orthodox disagree)
Not true. The indissolubility of marriage is a dogma of the Church. You might be confusing rejection of that dogma with the support some Eastern Catholics give for the exercise of oikonomia on the matter. Oikonomia never changes a doctrine, but has to do with praxis.
indulgences.
I think what is normally rejected by Eastern Catholics (and maybe a few Oriental Catholics) are the non-dogmatic elements of the teaching that are often mistaken to be part of the dogma.
and then of course the Canon of Scripture.
Not true. Trent did not close the Canon, but only enjoined the minimum that can be regarded as Canonical. No Catholic - Eastern or Oriental - denies the canonicity of this minimum number of books.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
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