Well, at least you admit he is not the sufficient cause to start a council.
I was responding to your following comment
:
Originally Posted by
mardukm forums.catholic-questions.org/images/buttons_khaki/viewpost.gif
Dear brother Steve,
He is not the necessary cause, but a necessary cause.
He is the necessary cause to start a council and the sufficient cause to end the council
Can. 343 The function of the synod of Bishops is to discuss the matters proposed to it and set forth recommendations.
It is not its function to settle matters or to draw up decrees, unless the Roman Pontiff has given it deliberative power in certain cases; in this event, it rests with the Roman Pontiff to ratify the decisions of the synod.
Can. 344 *The synod of Bishops is directly under the authority of the Roman Pontiff, whose prerogative it is: *
*1ƒ to convene the synod, as often as this seems opportune to him, and to designate the place where the meetings are to be held *
*2ƒ to ratify the election of those who, in accordance with the special law of the synod, are to be elected, and to designate and appoint other members; *
*3ƒ at a suitable time before the celebration of the synod, to prescribe the outlines of the questions to be discussed, in accordance with the special law; *
*4ƒ to determine the agenda; *
*5ƒ to preside over the synod personally or through others; *
6ƒ to conclude, transfer, suspend or dissolve the synod.
M:
Sure. He does so as a member of the Council, not apart from it. So his action in ending the Council is an action of the Council itself. Your statement is equivalent to “The Council is sufficient cause to end the Council.” That is why the Canon you quote is under the specific heading “THE COLLEGE OF BISHOPS.” ALL canons in that heading regard the actions of THE COLLEGE TAKEN AS A COLLEGE.
Read the previous entry. Show me the collegial part (pope + bishops) and then show me the pope’s part alone.
M:
Nice comment. A pity you missed the part where this Canon is under the heading “Article 2: THE COLLEGE OF BISHOPS.”
I didn’t miss anything.
M:
You seem ignorant of what went on behind the scenes at V1. Don’t bother to appeal to that short summary from the old Catholic Encyclopedia. It does not tell the whole story, and if that is your main source, then more’s the pity. Many Fathers - of BOTH the Minority and Majority parties - complained that giving the Pope the prerogative to give the final decision on what was to be included as matters for decision violated the Traditional procedure and freedom of the bishops to propose and discuss what they deemed relevant as befits their office. But the decision was in the hands of the Committees (which had members from BOTH the Minority and Majority parties). It was the Committees, for the sake of procedural order, who granted this new prerogative to the Pope, because of the sheer number of bishops.
Who calls a council and formulates the agenda?
§2. It is for the Roman Pontiff to determine the matters to be treated in a council and establish the order to be observed in a council. To the questions proposed by the Roman Pontiff, the council fathers can add others which are to be approved by the Roman Pontiff.
btw, Who was it that didn’t want to meet because they KNEW it was going to be about infallibility?
M:
I’m not certain of the relevance.
Please explain the purpose of this question.
I asked, based on your following comment
"Originally Posted by
M
This is a purely canonical provision, and IT CAN CHANGE. The first time this prerogative was granted to the Pope was at Vatican 1, mainly through the efforts of one of the leading members of the Minority Party, Bishop Hefele. It was done for the good order of the Council, and was a merely procedural accomodation. This purely canonical prerogative is not of the esse of papal primacy, so it does not even belong in this discussion."
M:
It is changeable, so I don’t see how it is relevant.
§2. It is for the Roman Pontiff to determine the matters to be treated in a council and establish the order to be observed in a council. To the questions proposed by the Roman Pontiff, the council fathers can add others which are to be approved by the Roman Pontiff.
As stated, a procedural prerogative that was only first used at Vatican 1, and not of the esse of the primacy. Good luck trying to find it in the V1 definition on the Primacy.
under primacy, there were some interesting statements.
specifically look at session 4 ch 3 and while you’re there, ch 4 covers infallibility.
papalencyclicals.net/Councils/ecum20.htm
M:
Your Absolutist Petrine vision of “primacy” is not what the Vatican Fathers had in mind. The Pope is limited by considerations for the good of the Church, and by the local authority of his brother bishops.
all I’ve done is quote church docs, and canon law. Distinctions are all there.