The way it has been used in this thread has been an attempt to pigeonhole and frankly I feel it is far too simplistic a system.
I understand. Sometimes people say things that aren’t
necessarily from the Absolutist Petrine view, but someone applies the label anyway.
I do feel that some Catholics in these debates often talk past each other… for instance, while I generally agree with Marduk, I’ve appreciated a lot of the examples that Steve has used in this thread, too, and they argue endlessly.
Marduk even said at one point that he suspects Steve
does actually hold a High Petrine view, despite his habit of continually arguing with him.
You do of course realise that they are all one… in the Catholic Church. I don’t necessarily disagree with reuniting other ‘churches’ to The Catholic Church but I generally disagree with ecumenicism.
Okay, but the Catholic Church used to
include the Byzantine churches that are now out of communion with the bishop of Rome, so they
do deserve consideration different from that given to Protestants, whose denominations didn’t even
exist before the sixteenth century.
So, yes, the East-West Schism doesn’t mean the Catholic Church is no longer the
One, Holy, Catholic, and Apostolic Church. But some of her “limbs” (if I may) are still severed from her, and that’s a problem qualitatively different than that presented by Protestant Christianity…
Aside from the teaching of The Council of Florence, Vatican I and Vatican II I refer you to Pope Pius IX’s encyclical Quartus Supra which I have previously cited
Thank you.
Of course it must be acknowledged that, should the need to depose a bishop or refuse to recognize a patriarch arise, the pope of Rome does indeed have the authority to do so.
Again, I think
Alexander Roman is exactly right: we Catholics on this thread don’t disagree with you on these things, and we view such examples of the exercise of papal authority - properly understood, of course - to be in full conformity with the
principles on which first millennium ecclesiology operated.
You won’t see that distinction made by the council and yes I am, but last time I checked the various churches used the vernacular, none of them bar the greek yet use greek so I can see no basis for objection now? Besides which the Council made it clear that that was the correct version of the creed and then gave its equivalent in greek which is NOT a mere omission of the mention of the son altogether.
So you just dismiss as irrelevant the controversy that exploded over the Latin addition of “…and the Son” to the Creed?
Of course the doctrine is true - and I’m convinced, by the way, that it doesn’t claim what many Orthodox polemicists think it claims and which causes them to freak out about it - but you’ve got to give the East
some credit in their objections to how it was added, don’t you?
The bottom line is this: the Eastern Orthodox have no right to object to the use of the filioque in the Latin Church or to insist that it is heresy when it’s already pretty much been established that it’s not, but
neither should the Latin Church expect the eastern churches - whether Catholic or Orthodox - to recite the filioque when they recite the Creed.
What do you think?