S
Salvatore123
Guest
mccorm45 is spot-on!
In fact, in the Introduction to the RSV-CE, it states, “This edition of the RSV of the bible has been prepared for the use of Catholics by a committee of the Catholic Biblical Association of Great Britain. It was published with ecclesiastical approval and by agreement with the Standard Bible Committee and the Division of Christian Education of the National Council of the Churches of Christ in the United States of America.”
In short-speak: it was a protestant bible that was “converted” into a catholic one
P.S. - I again reiterate that I am NOT knocking Ignatius Press. But, I do want to point out (again) the difference between a book “conforming” to something as opposed to “revising according” to something.
Ignatius’s title page states pretty plainly, "This edition was revised according to Liturgiam Authenticam, 2002".
I respectfully submit that Ignatius consulted the encyclical, but did not necessarily conform to it.
Another odd thing: my “text only” RSV-CE 2d. ed. does NOT have an Imprimatur or Nihil Obstat. The newly released NT Study Bible does have them, but they are worded in a way I have never seen. I am an attorney by trade and even I cannot make heads or tales as to whether the actual TEXT found in that study bible has an Imprimatur or Nihil Obstat.
I am NOT saying it does not, nor am I saying it is heretical in any way. I simply found it odd that it put, at the top of the page, “Published with Ecclesiastical Approval”. Well, I know from Canon Law that ALL uses of the word “Catholic” by catholics must be given permission by an ordinary.
Perhaps someone can shine some light on the text . . .
In fact, in the Introduction to the RSV-CE, it states, “This edition of the RSV of the bible has been prepared for the use of Catholics by a committee of the Catholic Biblical Association of Great Britain. It was published with ecclesiastical approval and by agreement with the Standard Bible Committee and the Division of Christian Education of the National Council of the Churches of Christ in the United States of America.”
In short-speak: it was a protestant bible that was “converted” into a catholic one
P.S. - I again reiterate that I am NOT knocking Ignatius Press. But, I do want to point out (again) the difference between a book “conforming” to something as opposed to “revising according” to something.
Ignatius’s title page states pretty plainly, "This edition was revised according to Liturgiam Authenticam, 2002".
I respectfully submit that Ignatius consulted the encyclical, but did not necessarily conform to it.
Another odd thing: my “text only” RSV-CE 2d. ed. does NOT have an Imprimatur or Nihil Obstat. The newly released NT Study Bible does have them, but they are worded in a way I have never seen. I am an attorney by trade and even I cannot make heads or tales as to whether the actual TEXT found in that study bible has an Imprimatur or Nihil Obstat.
I am NOT saying it does not, nor am I saying it is heretical in any way. I simply found it odd that it put, at the top of the page, “Published with Ecclesiastical Approval”. Well, I know from Canon Law that ALL uses of the word “Catholic” by catholics must be given permission by an ordinary.
Perhaps someone can shine some light on the text . . .