Hi folks, I have a few comments for the discussion:
Iin this case He is no longer “sacramentally present”, but “in the flesh”, if you will. Now we no longer have transubstantiation, but cannibalism!
I think that it would be incorrect to consider Christ present “in the flesh” in any Eucharistic Miracle – if by this we mean Christ is present under his proper accidents and in His natural mode. Whatever “flesh” is there is certainly not the flesh Christ has as he has it – for Christ has flesh whole and entire, not in pieces. Furthermore, were Christ to appear as “a full bodied apparition” it till would not be Him “in the flesh” under his proper mode of being, for that can only occur when Christ comes again, and we will know when that happens.
Now to understand why this is not cannibalism, you need to understand what we are getting. We receive the resurrected and glorified body of Jesus, not his earthly body and blood
I’ve mentioned before on the forums why I think this approach isn’t the most fruitful when it comes to the question of cannibalism. In a nutshell, it is because it a)it seems to deviate a bit from the Church teaching on what the real presence is (Christ himself) and b) it brings up the difficulty of Christ giving the apostles His glorified body at the Last Supper.
St Thomas Aquinas held that Christ gave His non-glorified body to the Apostles. I think this view is the most consistent with the doctrine of the Real Presence and sacramental theology. This, of course, means we would have to look elsewhere than the glorified body as an answer for why the Eucharist is not cannibalism and also how Christ is present in the first place.
- Being sacramentally present is merely a veil over his substance. He is free to remove that veil whenever he so wishes. Jesus ascended into heaven, but he has appeared to many even after his ascension i.e. St. Faustina
Anthony, I’m a bit uneasy about describing sacramental presence as a veil over Christ’s substance, especially when you go on to say that He can remove the veil (which, I suppose, would imply that He becomes present actually). Rather, I think a more accurate account would be that His sacramental presence is a entirely distinct mode of presence. The accidents of bread and wine aren’t a veil over Christ’s substance, they are the sign of the sacramental reality, and are the sine qua non of a sacrament. If we were to suppose we could somehow draw back or look behind the accidents of bread and wine, we wouldn’t find Christ’s substance there, since His substance, like all substances are unintelligible to us.
When Christ appears to saints after His Ascension, He isn’t appearing to them in his natural mode. That will only happen when Christ comes again.
- It still wouldn’t be cannibalism, even in this case. When you deal with cannibalism, you are not merely dealing with accidents, but the substance of the accidents. It may taste and look like flesh and blood, but that doesn’t mean it isn’t the glorified body of Christ (as we see it to be sacramentally) . It is still the risen Christ and glorified Christ, who expressed his nature very differently after the Resurrection than before the Resurrection. Normal flesh and blood don’t walk through walls like he so freely did.
See above about the non-glorified body received by the apostles.
Now did Jesus eat his own body at the Last Supper in John?
Luvtosew,
I don’t think we can know for sure. What we do know is that He held His Body in His own hands. I’m inclined to think that Christ did not consume what He gave because of the nature of the thing and his command to others to “take and eat”.
Also why do we think the body and blood are in the host when Jesus said the cup is his blood and the bread is his body
We think this because of who Christ is. Sacramentally, the sign of bread manifests the reality of His Body, and likewise the sign of wine His Blood. But, the reality of that reality is that His Body and Blood are united right now. So, when His Body is made present, so is His Blood.
Does any of that help?
VC