Ever-Virigin diapproved?

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P salms 69:8 is a prophecy about the Messiah (Jesus). It says that his mother had sons.
Does this disprove Mary being Ever-Virigin?:confused:
 
P salms 69:8 is a prophecy about the Messiah (Jesus). It says that his mother had sons.
Does this disprove Mary being Ever-Virigin?:confused:
Not “disproved” at all.

“I have become an outcast to my brothers,
a stranger to my mother’s sons,
Because zeal for Your House consumes me.”
Psalm 69:9-10

And then there’s Hosea 2:4:

“Protest against your mother, protest!
For she is not my wife and I am not her Husband."

These, and numerous other passages in the Old Testament, illustrate a very long-standing Scriptural tradition of speaking of Israel as a “mother” and of fellow Jews as one’s “brothers.” As in Hosea, Israel is frequently depicted as an unfaithful wife and mother - a mother who commits spiritual fornication with other gods (i.e., Baal: Hosea 2:15, 2:18-19, etc.), and who violates the relationship with her true husband, God the Father. Yet, God will reform His “unfaithful wife” (Hosea 2:9-16), and make her His own forever (Hosea 2:21-22)

The “brothers” are not the speaker’s (the Messiah’s) literal brothers, but his fellow Israelites; and the “mother” in question is Israel itself. Thus, in Psalm 69 the Messiah speaks of to isolation from the Chosen People - an abandonment on the part of those who should support Him.
 
Thank you! That answers my question. Did not see it that way.:)👍
 
P salms 69:8 is a prophecy about the Messiah (Jesus). It says that his mother had sons.
Does this disprove Mary being Ever-Virigin?:confused:
No. The Church has declared, for all time, that she did not have any other children. Nowhere does the bible claim that she had other children - only that Jesus had “brothers and sisters” Now, “Brother” and “sister” were terms used also for nieces, nephews, and cousins, as well as those from your geographical area. Remember that prophecy is principle, not precision. Since Jesus is not recorded as wearing sackcloth (Ps 69:11), does that make Him false?

Mary consecrated herself to the Lord when she said “I am the handmaid of the Lord. Be it done to me according to your word”. A handmaiden does not serve by turning from God and raising her own family. Don’t be confused by man’s made-up legends.
 
“You know my folly, O God; my guilt is not hidden from you.” (Psalm 69:5)

Same prophecy. Does this prove that Jesus was not sinless? Of course not! In order to correctly interpret and understand prophecies, one needs to have “eyes to see”, by the grace of God. And one must interpret prophecies, like all the Scriptures, in accordance with the doctrine of faith. So, since we know that Jesus was without sin, and we know that He had no biological siblings, then we know that, in those parts of the prophecy, David was not prophesying Christ, but was only speaking about himself. On the other hand…

“They will look on me, the one they have pierced, and they will mourn for him as one mourns for an only child, and grieve bitterly for him as one grieves for a firstborn son.” (Zechariah 12:10)

We know that all of this prophecy is about our Lord Jesus Christ. God bless.
 
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