Do you see how treacherous it may be to propose that you can use “private judgement” without any kind of presupposition?
Well at least you acknowledge you presuppose Catholicism to be true. And all notions of truth and objectivity go out the window.

You realise you are making my point about Catholic attitudes towards truth and error, right? Because if Rome’s claims about itself are false, there is no way you can know that. The problem of being unfalsifiable is that you can’t prove something true either.
Fideism is rejected by the Catholic Faith, as well as by St. Ignatius.
However, it is true that if Christ says something, even if we perceive it differently, we must conform our views to His.
You conflate Christ with Rome. They’re actually quite different, as you’ll see further down. Fideism is rejected by the Catholic faith? Well, does the lip-service match the practice? I suppose that
obsequium religiosum isn’t actually a Roman Catholic concept?

You are required to submit intellect and will. That’s fideism. As for proof, true, the Catechism does not speak explicitly of implicit faith but the notion seems to be contained in this summary in §182:
We believe all “that which is contained in the word of God, written or handed down, and which the Church proposes for belief as divinely revealed.”
Don’t bring up a word-concept fallacy, §182 speaks of implicit faith in the RCC. There’s no room for critical thinking there.
As for your theological concerns, to say you misrepresent private judgement goes without saying, and I’m not going start mud slinging about highly charged topics. But clearly you claim some epistemological advantage in being Catholic - that you have an infallible guide and infallible interpreter which Protestants don’t. The presumption on this thread is that former Catholics leave because of a bad experience or because they are “church shopping” for something that conforms to their too liberal standards. Can’t you allow that some leave because they are looking for truth, and they find that presuming Rome is true because Rome says so doesn’t add up? Surely you have to allow that some have left because they couldn’t find the authority Rome claims. But, lucky me who read this thread, because Catholics have an infallible guide and I don’t and I have the opportunity to find out what it is. Just let me know how that works in reality. Seriously. When, or hypothetically,
if you have a burning theological question, who do you go to for guidance? Where is your infallible guide. Catholic Answers isn’t it. Even books stamped
imprimatur have had errors on faith and morals. Don’t assert Catholic superiority so confidently and then not back it up. Do you have a tangible Infallible Guide or not? You don’t.
And for what it’s worth, I don’t like divorce. But annulment and re-marriage isn’t Scriptural either. It’s a semantic game the RCC is playing - the translations of Matthew 5:32 and 19:9 in the NAB are in accordance with Catholic doctrine, but one shouldn’t twist Scripture like that. It is an escape from what the Bible defines as marriage. The annulment process is unbiblical in that Jesus allowed for sexual immorality/marital unfaithfulness as the
only basis for ending a marriage, and the annulment process allows for many, many reasons - not just the one reason Jesus mentioned. Someone once said, “If Christ says something… we must conform our views to His”.
God Bless
Stephen