flameburns623:
HOWEVER, it is not hard to show very close parallels between “View of the Hebrews” and the BofM.
Oh, really? I have read the
View of the Hebrews and I did not find any conclusive similarities between it and the Book of Mormon. Of course, the View of the Hebrews might have some distant similarities, since both books are speaking of people of the House of Israel. But for anyone to claim that any part of the Book of Mormon was plagiarized from the View of the Hebrews shows that that person is not familiar with both books in order to come to such a conclusion.
flameburns623:
One can find Shakespearean quotes.
Shakespearean quotes? Really? Where?
flameburns623:
One can clearly show direct quotes from the New Testament replicated in the BofM hundreds of years prior to the composition of the NT.
And the problem is what?
flameburns623:
Jesus is repeatedly named as “Jesus Christ” long before His birth in Bethlehem–as if these were His first- and last-names.
Really? Was Jesus not Jesus before He was physically born? Mary did not decide the name for her baby. She was told what to name Him by the angel Gabriel. This is because this was His name. It has always been His name. What does it matter if His name is revealed to a people long before He was born physically? In the Book of Mormon, the name was prophesied and guess what? Jesus was actually called by that name. Imagine that!
flameburns623:
Even Talmage knew better than that–his LDS biography of our Saviour is entitled “Jesus THE Christ”.
In the New Testament, there are several places where Jesus is referred to as
“Christ”, not
“the Christ”. And yet in other places, Jesus is referred to as
“the Christ”. Should we reject all the verses that do not insert the word
“the” before the word
“Christ”? Also, in the New Testament, there are 189 verses that speaks of
“Jesus Christ” as if this is His full name. In 13 of these verses, the phrase
“the name of Jesus Christ” is found, as if
“Christ” is part of His name. Your argument here does not seem to hold water.
flameburns623:
My point is, the twenty-something Joseph Smith was not educated enough to know differently, and nowhere that I can recollect does the BofM acknowledge that the word ‘Christ’ is actually a Greek equivalent to the Hebrew title ‘Messiah’.
Why would the Book of Mormon acknowledge this? The Book of Mormon was translated into English, not Greek. The word
“Christ” was borrowed into the English language centuries before the Book of Mormon was published. So, when the word
“Christ” is used in the translation, it is obviously the best English word to match the word that was being translated from.