Isn’t that change the definition of a person doing something good?
Surely not if premeditated.
Sure, but that was never the issue. To say Mary was immaculately conceived, THAT is the issue and the reason for the doctrine of the IC.
OK
Winning has no value if one can’t lose. Getting something right, is no big deal if there is nothing wrong. It gets back to that passage I quoted previously about life and death blessings and curses. We have choices and there are consequences to those choices.
Is this to suggest that God might find gambling with the souls of his creation to be an enjoyable pass-time?
To clarify, if the decisions of the Jews over whom to believe might be so casually written off as “a wrong choice,” irrespective of whether such a choice might lead to an eternity of damnation, how might one properly regard a god involved in administering such tests of whimsical content, but lasting consequence?
I wish you gave a better example, of contrasting disobedience and obedience?
Is this not a sufficiently simple example of “blessings and curses?” Is it not also the same form of example as provided by the forbidden fruit in the Garden of Eden?
Benevolence is marked by, or disposed to, doing good. God certainly desires good for everyone. But what about an individual’s disposition? God presents the choice between good and bad, blessings and curses. He says, “choose good and blessings”. But the operative word is “choose”. A person strange as it seems, might choose evil and curses. God however doesn’t force. Or there is no free will. No free will, no consequences. He does, however, lay out the consequences for choices. Because we have free will.
Fair enough, but in the above example the consideration was on what is provided, rather than what is chosen. Is not a benevolent deity who provides Pharaoh with the choice of the death of all the first born required to deliver on this threat? In what instance might a benevolent being comprised solely of good be capable of providing such an alternative?
Maybe that wasn’t a good example. Let’s look back to other examples I gave. Take one issue. No fornicator will inherit heaven…i.e. they go to hell if they die in that sin. Sound too harsh? Is that sufficient enough warning and consequence, to motivate a person to avoid that sin at all cost? A person might think, they won’t go to hell the minute they commit that sin. And they might be right. But the guilt of serious sin to one’s soul is immediate, even if the consequences are postponed. For example, If one gets in a fatal crash on the freeway on the way home 30 minutes after serious sin, and they aren’t properly sorry for that sin with a firm desire not to commit it again, THEN the dire consequences for their soul occured immediately at their death.
Let us consider this sin. Typically this is not a sin of evil intent, but one of self-control (such as gluttony). Is its commission truly worthy of having an eternity of torment as a consequence?
God attaches hell as a consequence for some actions. Does He not have the right to do that, and require us to obey?
Certainly he may, but is it possible for one to truly love a tyrant? If God’s image might be misconstrued as such, is not the obligation on the part of the omnipotent being so maligned to clarify his message? If no clarity is forthcoming, might one not conclude that God must be satisfied with this image?
Isn’t that a similar proposition God made with Adam and Eve?
Is “obey me or I will disinherit you” a common proposition suggested at the onset of a loving relationship–particularly one in which one party might be infinitely more powerful than the other? Is it not suspected that a being of infinite love might have been capable of a greater showing of initial affection?
Have you bugged my house?
I suspect many have this difficulty…
kidding aside, disobedience has consequences. If that child is 46 years old, yeah, he’s outta there

okay, okay, this time all kidding aside. I think a better example is in order. Do you have another example?
What about the previous effort might be considered deficient?
He desires obedience. He doesn’t desire disobedience. Simple example. God says jump. My response is, okay, or how high?.
The wrong answers are
- why
- what for
- you’re not the boss of me
- I’ll take it under advisement
- No
- I don’t think so
- etc etc
you get the drift.
When one occupies a position of authority, is it not considered courteous to explain why a task should be accomplished in a given manner? Is this not evidence that the individual being so addressed is of sufficient value to warrant the effort?
What might prove more efficient: a troupe of employees performing actions without understanding, or all contributing their individual parts to an understood whole?
Surely you’re not thinking God is benign?
If not benign, what might best describe a being purportedly comprised entirely of love?
Using that word instead, “what {
descriptive word} being might use torment as a means of achieving obedience?”
The question to ask is, why doesn’t He force someone to obey Him? Could He force them? Sure. Why doesn’t He do that?
If a perfect doctor might be considered one who might be capable of curing every illness, and a perfect psychologist might be one able to cure even the most ardent neurotic, would not a perfect, loving, God be able to cure every sinner?
Then one accepts God on their terms not on God’s terms. Loosly that’s idolotry. btw, only God’s terms work anyway.
What if these alternate terms might be claimed to be of God?