R
rcwitness
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c,mon… you know you can’t ask a question to general protestants and expect one answer.Since you mentioned them, is the Protestant belief that those men are all in Hell?
c,mon… you know you can’t ask a question to general protestants and expect one answer.Since you mentioned them, is the Protestant belief that those men are all in Hell?
Not at all. We would need to agree with the idea of mortal sin and what it entails.Since you mentioned them, is the Protestant belief that those men are all in Hell?
40 And they found under the coats of the slain some of the donaries of the idols of Jamnia, which the law forbiddeth to the Jews: so that all plainly saw, that for this cause they were slain.“Idolatry” would be if they were worshipping them and sacrificing to them as Gods.
Even if you don’t think it’s productive to pray to God on behalf of those who have died (either because there’s no such thing as life after death, or some other reason) I’m not seeing how it could be sinful.
Have you never prayed for a friend who died suddenly, in the hope that God could still help them?
So that you understand Mortal Sin here is a link to some information that may further your understanding of it, not saying you have to believe it but understand what a Catholic is talking about when they refer to Mortal Sin. Beginning Catholic40 And they found under the coats of the slain some of the donaries of the idols of Jamnia, which the law forbiddeth to the Jews: so that all plainly saw, that for this cause they were slain.
I think the part in Macc makes it pretty clear the writer sees it as a very severe form of “having an idol”.
I never said it’s sinful to pray for the dead. I never even said it “couldn’t be productive”. I guess many things are possible that we don’t know. I am just questioning that part as proof to anything and it contradicts Catholic teaching. If it wasn’t for the mortal sin (Which we don’t believe in and thus I do not say they are in hell) teaching that part would be sufficient I guess.
Regards
It would not be, as neither Christ nor the apostles ever quoted from Ezra, Nehemiah or Ruth, but those Books are still accepted.I’ve also heard that neither Jesus nor the apostles ever quoted from the OT apocyrpha given as a reason why it was removed. Not sure if that is true.
that is the primary reason. The Catholic and Orthodox Churches have traditionally relied on the Septuagint. That was the Greek language Old Testament in use at the time of Christ. It is the strongest indication of what books were considered to be Sacred Scripture by the Jews at that time ( or at least most of them, as the Sadducees only considered the Pentateuch to be Inspired by God). The books in the Septuagint are the ones in the Catholic O.T.Another reason I’ve heard is that the OT apocrypah isn’t in the Masoretic text. Not sure that is true either…
Just addressing the above bold and underlined I have added this for your reading pleasure.There is a phrase in Tobit that talks about almsgiving in a way some protestants didn’t like:
Tobit 4:10 For almsgiving delivers from death and saves people from passing down to darkness.
I’ve “heard” that was a factor, but admit it is a bit of nitpicking.
I’ve also heard that neither Jesus nor the apostles ever quoted from the OT apocyrpha given as a reason why it was removed. Not sure if that is true.
Another reason I’ve heard is that the OT apocrypah isn’t in the Masoretic text. Not sure that is true either.
Just reasons I’ve heard on occasion. Sorry I haven’t read all previous posts to see if these have been raised already.
Alright.Not at all. We would need to agree with the idea of mortal sin and what it entails.
Everybody went to Hell (Sheol) back in those Days… you just didnt want to go to the bottom floor.Alright.
From a Catholic pov I believe we’d say that we don’t know whether they went to hell or not.
As all Christian denominations would (and if not, should).Alright.
From a Catholic pov I believe we’d say that we don’t know whether they went to hell or not.
I’m not really sure what you mean. I glanced over the link and didn’t see anything new. And I can assure you I have thoroughly studied the Catechism (obviously the first thing I would turn to), my copy looks like a school textbook with all my notes.So that you understand Mortal Sin here is a link to some information that may further your understanding of it, not saying you have to believe it but understand what a Catholic is talking about when they refer to Mortal Sin. Beginning Catholic
Additionally the Catechism of the Catholic Church 1846 - 1876 teaches this CCC
Both links are short reads but very informative.
I salute you for itI’m not really sure what you mean. I glanced over the link and didn’t see anything new. And I can assure you I have thoroughly studied the Catechism (obviously the first thing I would turn to), my copy looks like a school textbook with all my notes.
It is certain that Judas Maccabeus had hope that they did not.Alright.
From a Catholic pov I believe we’d say that we don’t know whether they went to hell or not.
All I was doing was providing information, nothing more. If you have already been through it that is fine. I was not implying anything.I’m not really sure what you mean. I glanced over the link and didn’t see anything new. And I can assure you I have thoroughly studied the Catechism (obviously the first thing I would turn to), my copy looks like a school textbook with all my notes.
So I’m not sure if my understanding is the problem. Although I generally see on these threads people assume if you don’t agree or find something sketchy you obviously don’t understand it (fully).
Phillip Melanchthon’s apologia harmonizing James with the Pauline letters would be my guess. Since no one other than ML or a handful of others ever questioned James, who else would Melanchthon have written it for?I have often heard this, that Luther was talked out of removing these books, or that he didn’t have support for it, but I’ve never seen a source. Do you have one? Jon
And that would be the reason to pray for the dead.It is certain that Judas Maccabeus had hope that they did not.
Even Luther in his initial commentary (1524) says he praises James, despite its rejection by “the ancients.” He translated an included it in his initial translation. I’ve seen no evidence that he wanted to force others to exclude it.Phillip Melanchthon’s apologia harmonizing James with the Pauline letters would be my guess. Since no one other than ML or a handful of others ever questioned James, who else would Melanchthon have written it for?
I see that you are taking the circuitous route to becoming Catholic. Now, only a half-step to the Anglican Rite and you are home. Circumspection over. Celebration begins.
Thanks Jon.And that would be the reason to pray for the dead.
Thy will be done.
Jon
It tends to happen when you have an entire Conservative Catholic (The nice non-judging kind) family in law. My father in law, a very smart guy, I had to answer some interesting questions. In this instance one would tend not to want to sound “uninformative”.I salute you for italthough tbh it seems a bit “above and beyond the call of duty” for you to do that.
No worries!All I was doing was providing information, nothing more. If you have already been through it that is fine. I was not implying anything.