G
guanophore
Guest
I think it is clear, also, but it is evident that we see it differently. How are we to resolve such a dispute?I don’t think Paul could get any clearer than “not as a result of works.” It’s not that Paul is being misunderstood here, guan, but there are those who refuse to believe his teaching.Paul says “by grace through faith…not as a result of works;”
Paul here is speaking of works of the law, works that come from ourselves our own ego, or our flesh. Those works that might be the basis for boasting. He is not speaking of holy works, which are part and parcel of salvation. It is sacred work that he speaks of when he reminds us to “work out your own salvation with fear and trembling; 13 for it is God who is at work in you, enabling you both to will and to work for his good pleasure.” Phil 2:12-13
The working out of the salvation is not separated by the Apostle from the grace of God in us that is working it. It is the source and motivation of the work, whether it is based in self, or based in grace, that makes the difference.
It is called Apostolic Teaching, moondweller. The Apostles never separated faith from the actions it produces. This did not occur until heresy arose. One early one was Pelagianism, which was addressed by the Church in the early centuries. Other similar heresies arose during the Reformation, and are continuing to spawn.Code:Jesus says "*Your faith* has saved you," yet you continue to insist on works, contending even that faith itself is a work.See what I mean? Grace can flow through the act of the human will? What is this theology, guan? Some sort of new age mumbo-jumbo?
Do you deny that faith is a work, even though Jesus plainly says that it is?
What makes you think that grace does not flow through human will?
" To the weak I became weak, so that I might win the weak. I have become all things to all people, that I might by all means save some. 23 I do it all for the sake of the gospel, so that I may share in its blessings." 1 Cor 9:21-23
Do you imagine that Paul believes he can “save some” apart from God’s grace? Do you think he is not making acts of his will, so that others can be saved through him?
There were both Jews from the diaspora an Gentiles in the Ephesian Church. Remember when Paul went to Ephesus, he went first to they synagogue, as he did in every city. But, it does not matter if it is a Jew trying to earn their way into heaven by keeping the law, or a Gentile trying to earn their way by their own “being good”, both are ineffective. No work that does not spring from grace will have any eternal value.No he’s not. The Ephesians were Gentiles and were never under the Law, had nothing to do with the Law of Moses. Nor is there any such thing as the Levitical Law.
The things we do to make the grace flow we call “cooperation” with the grace of God. I think you would agree with me that God desired all to be saved, and to come to the knowledge of the truth. God pours out his grace on all, drawing all to the father. Not all respond, so the grace is not effective unto salvation. Those that choose to respond to grace are given more grace.By works, guan? By doing something to make grace flow (whatever that means). No, but by the blood of Christ.Eph 3:11-12 "{This was} in accordance with the eternal purpose which He carried out in Christ Jesus our Lord, in whom we have boldness and confident access through faith in Him."Not in accordance with our works, guan, but in Christ Jesus, in whom believers (even Gentile believers like the Ephesians), have boldness and confident access (how?) through faith in Him.
" Or do you suppose that it is for nothing that the scripture says, “God yearns jealously for the spirit that he has made to dwell in us”? 6 But he gives all the more grace; therefore it says,
“God opposes the proud,
but gives grace to the humble.” James 4:5-6