Based on the context, I’d go with the boldfaced option.
I’ve been thinking more about the statement of James that you refer to, mainly because of a strong tendency of Catholics to camp exclusively on that one verse without considering the context. What has occurred to me is this: When we come across other passages of Scripture that contain such absolute statements, we are quick to qualify them if their surface meaning indicates a teaching that is in conflict with other biblical texts. For example, I don’t think any of us would take Christ’s words in the following text without qualifying them from the context:
“Therefore I tell you, whatever you ask for in prayer, believe that you have received it, and it will be yours.” (Mark 11:24)
If we take that verse by itself, in isolation from the context and from other biblical texts, we can end up with some horrible doctrines. However, I don’t think anybody does that; instead, we say, “Well, the text doesn’t really mean anything we ask for in an absolute sense, but rather anything we ask for that is in accordance with the will of God.”
Do you see what I’m getting at? Why qualify that text but not the text in James 2?
Ah, but are we not guilty of the same thing if we take a statement such as St. Paul’s that, “man is justified by faith without the works of the law,” to exclude all works absolutely from justification? I agree with your opinion that statements in Scripture can admit different interpretations, so it may be necessary to qualify further what it means, but that doesn’t mean that we should not generally take the words of Scripture as literally true. Your counter-example I do not think helps your argument. You are saying that the verse is only true in a restricted sense, since God does not grant everything we ask for (for example, as I recall, Huck Finn prayed for a fishing pole and never received one). If we apply the analogy of your counterexample to this verse, what does that mean for this verse? That works do justify, just not all works (as God grants some things we ask for and not others)? I don’t understand how we can go from “man is justified by works” to “man is in no ways justified by works whatsoever.”
It is not the case that Catholics rest exclusively on a single verse in James (or even the whole chapter) to defend the teaching that we are not “justified by faith alone” in the Lutheran understanding of the phrase. Even in this thread, I have said much more about the Epistle to the Romans than about James. However, when Lutherans say that according to Scripture, we are justified by faith alone and works have not part in justification in any sense, and Catholics respond by pointing out that the same Scripture explicitly says, “so you see that a man is justified by works and not by faith only,” and then Lutherans say it doesn’t mean that man is not justified by faith only, what more is there to do than to throw your hands up in the air? It is not any different then when those who deny Christ’s presence in the Eucharist look at texts such as “this is my body” and say that Christ is merely speaking allegorically, which I know from reading through the Book of Concord is very distressing to Lutherans. But even when we interpret what James says in the light of the larger context of his letter, I can’t see how your reading is tenable. I will give just a few reasons.
(1) He explitly says “man is justified by works and not by faith only.”
(2) He says faith without works will not save, not that there is no faith without works.
(3) He argues from the same example of Abraham used by Paul, suggesting he is arguing against the very same sort of mis-reading of Paul that Lutherans impose on him.
(4) He says that good works are the soul of the body of faith (the soul is the animating principle of the body), so far from the phrase “faith without works is dead” suggesting that saving faith merely manifests itself by works, James is saying that it is works that give life to faith.
Rather than discuss James to death, why don’t we discuss Paul instead, especially since Paul is the basis of your opinion. As you said, if you accepted the Catholic reading of James (as Luther did), you would see a contradiction between Paul and James.
My first question to you is why do you take Paul without qualification when he says that man is justified by works apart from the works of the law? beyond that, do you have any thoughts about my opinions on the passages you brought up earlier?