No, because in the context Paul refers to the entire law, not just ceremonial aspects but also moral. Like I said, the statement may need qualification from the context, but not necessarily.
No, it doesn’t. You have to look at the context to determine whether a qualification is called for.
It means that this verse, like the one about asking whatever you want, needs to be qualified from the context. The context of James bears out that he is addressing the question of whether a faith is truly saving or not. He is clearly setting out to disprove the false notion that a person’s “faith” could save him if it has no works.
I don’t think I said Catholics in general do this; I said there is a strong tendency of Catholics to do this.
No more than if someone were to say, “Jesus did not really mean that we would get anything we ask for no matter what it is, even though the text, by itself and in isolation from the rest of the Bible, seems to say that.”
They do that because they force on the text a metaphorical reading that the very context does not even begin to call for. It’s eisegesis.
So? Christ explicitly said that whatever you ask for in faith, you’ll get.
No argument from me there. Genuine faith must have accompanying works, or else it is not genuine. That’s his argument throughout the entire text. That is what he is trying to explain and prove from his whole discourse in James 2.
This is a supposition and guess of what he may have intended and thus is not tenable at all.
I pretty much agree, since this is essentially the same as your point #2, i.e., saving faith always has works. However, James says that both faith and works are active: “faith was working with his works, …” You refer here to only one side of the equation, attributing to works the animating power, when James says it is also the faith that is working simultaneously (with) the works.
See my reply above regarding this. When he says “law,” he is referring to the entire law, thus including all works of law.