beckers:
I’m confused so if someone can explain something to me I will be for ever grateful…
I will hold you to that
How is possible for a federal judge to tell the State that something is wrong. Since the US consitution doesn’t saying anything specfic about marriage then there is nothing wrong with a state limiting it. Plus it is a STATE choice not A federal choice!
If you read through the
decision, for which
SnorterLuster kindly provided a link, you’ll find the court held the amendment to be unconstitutional in three ways, none of which is related to marriage per se.
First though, let’s review - the Constitution is the supreme law of the land. In those areas it covers, state law may not contradict it. Otherwise, rights are reserved to the states. Traditionally, regulation of marriage, such as whether it’s legal to marry your 14-year old half-sister, has been exclusively a matter for states. The resulting patchwork of varying state laws has been a boon to states like Nevada.
Anyway, if your state enacts an amendment which restricts the free speech rights of say, Presbyterians, or allows random strip searches without cause, then your state constitutional amendment will be unconstitutional per the US Constitution (Amendments I and IV, in this case). I’m not positive about this, but I don’t think in many cases the state supreme courts can do much about this - they have to uphold the state constitution, even if it’s wrong. Instead, it falls to federal courts to rule on whether state constitional amendments pass muster according to the federal Constitutional.
A more relevant example is the
Romer case from Colorado from some years ago. A constitutional amendment was passed which prevented any future law from ever granting specific rights to gays (forgive my paraphrasing, it’s been 10 years or so since the decision). The Supreme Court ruled that the Colorado amendment violated the equal protection clause of the XIVth Amendment, making a particular class of people unequal. The ruling said this is unavoidable from time to time, but it must only be done in furthering a legitimate government interest.
Ok, now back to the case at hand…
The federal court ruled that
- It is essentially the same as Romer, and so violates the equal protection clause of the XIVth Amendment.
- It singles out a particular group for legislative punishment, and so constitutes a bill of attainder, prohibited under Article I, Section 9 of the US Constitution.
- By thus restricting lobbying and advocacy for particular legislative remedies, the current amendment violates the free speech rights guaranteed under the Ist Amendment.
The first two have some logic to them, if you bother to read through the tedious explanations in the decision. The third seems like a wild stretch to me, yet it is first of the three (section A) set forth in the decision. Regardless, all three points are really just the same argument. The reasoning is somewhat shaky, and the ultimate question is how closely this resembles
Romer. We’ll see what the appeals court thinks in due time.