- Women have never been treated as property in the West (or in East Asia), unless they were slaves in eras/places where that existed.
Your claim depends on what you mean by being ‘treated as property’. You seem to be saying that because women were at least considered citizens in the vast majority of Western civilizations throughout history, regardless of how they were actually treated by society, since they weren’t
technically considered property, they “never have been treated as property”. You’ve taken a logical leap that really doesn’t make sense.
So women are considered ‘citizens,’ by Roman civilization, in Europe during the Middle Ages, or in America. If in reality women cannot exercise the rights granted to all citizens, and in many cases seem to be ‘bought and sold’ through marriage arrangements which don’t take into account the woman’s own discernment of her vocation, can’t we realistically say that she is being ‘treated like property’? When she is looked down upon as having little intellectual value, is not cherished as a wife and mother, and is not able to make her own vocational decisions, what kind of citizen is she? Certainly not one who is equal in dignity to her male counterpart.
Simple proof: they could own property, even in the 19th Century. Property can’t own property.
Women were not granted property rights in America until the very end of the 19th century. That leaves a few millennia in which women had NO property rights for you to consider…
Still less were they treated as property in Ancient Rome (unless they were slaves, again) or Medieval Europe.
Technically, but still–see above.
Roman women particularly could not choose who or when to marry, were not educated (and we’re talking of the classical age here–they’d be studying philosophy, not ‘brainwashing’) nearly to the degree that men were, and were seen as having no value outside of their families.
Medieval women, on the other hand, had undoubtedly many more rights than people are usually willing to admit. I myself am just learning a little bit about the actual situation of medieval women, so if you have any insights/resources to direct me to, that would be handy.
I guess what we can say, then, is that while women enjoyed many rights during the medieval period which they hadn’t really before, gradually through the Reformation, Enlightenment, and, ironically enough, democratic revolutions of the 18th and 19th centuries, they were often once more subjugated to an inferior role to men. Case in point: colonial American women enjoyed property rights and suffrage for awhile, until those rights were rescinded around the time of the Revolution.
- Women having the right to vote was probably overall a good thing, but it really was enacted for the reasons I said.
That you think it was some heroic triumph is interesting (well, not to me), but that’s not what happened. What happened was the ruling parties saw a chance to dish the opposition.
Do the political motivations matter if something good was achieved? That’s like saying you’d be unhappy if abortion were ruled unconstitutional because a candidate wanted to secure a sizable pro-life base. I’m sure I wouldn’t hear any complaints then!
“Heroic triumph” is just a
bit of an exaggeration…but still, whatever the motives, I see women’s suffrage as a good historical step in the right direction.