Fr Ambrose:
The Pope and the Council of Florence defined:
“… we define, with the approval of this holy universal council of Florence, that the following truth of faith shall be believed and accepted by all Christians and thus shall all profess it: that the holy Spirit is eternally from the Father and the Son, and has his essence and his subsistent being from the Father together with the Son, and proceeds from both eternally as from one principle and a single spiration.”
If you will deny that the Spirit proceeds eternally from the Father and the Son as from one principle and a single spiration, then we may have an area of agreement from which to proceed towards a common belief.
Do you deny this? Yes? No?
I have had some lengthy discussions about this of late, and I believe that the answer is that it
can be denied in the sense of origin. The language is murky at best, because it seems to confuse an eternal energetic procession (by way of
ousia) with the eternal hypostatic procession (spiration/procession (
ekporeusis of the Holy Spirit from the Father as sole
arche of the Trinity). However, there is nothing in the language specifically that says that there is an eternal hypostatic procession from the Son, and thus, I believe that a Catholic can affirm the procession of the Holy Spirit from the Son and the Father by way of
ousiwdws without denying the monarchy of the Father, exactly as St. Basil did (“The goodness of [the divine] nature, the holiness of [that] nature, and the royal dignity reach from the Father through the only-begotten [Son] to the Holy Spirit. Since we confess the persons in this manner, there is no infringing upon the holy dogma of the monarchy.”). The last phrase simply maintains that the
ousiwdws procession should not be confused with
ekporeusis.
I see two problems. First, it’s wrong (and it always has been) to call this creed the “Nicene” Creed, since the Nicene Creed clearly related to
ekporeusis. That is half the problem of the Orthodox being resistant to the idea. Second, there are some Latin theologians (starting from St. Augustine) that do appear to have confused the two, so while that wouldn’t negate any value in their teaching, I think that there may have to be some revision in how those teachings are accepted.
What do you think? I am very interested to have an Orthodox perspective on the matter.