Filioque and Eastern Christian Trinitarian understanding

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Fr Ambrose:
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Ignatius:
Too much reliance is placed on the power of human reasoning to penetrate more of the mysteries of the Godhead than God has revealed.
Ah! Yes.
 
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prodromos:
Something that is part of your very nature is not something that you do. You are a human being, is that something that you do? By nature of your being a creature you are in a form of communion with all other creatures, is this something you do?
Actually, being a human is something I do, it’s just not something I do voluntarily. Anything that can be described with a verb is an action. So the Spirit proceeding from the Father is an action. Now this is either something that is done to the Father or done by him. Another way of putting it is that either the Spirit originates the procession or the Father does. Since the Father also sends the Spirit, it seems clear that it is the Father who originates the procession. That the Spirit would be the first cause of his own procession seems odd. And since the Father processes the Spirit, so does the Son, because, as we learn from scripture, everything that the Father does, the Son does.
 
Fr Ambrose said:
"And Mary said to the angel: How shall this be done, because I know not man?

“And the angel answering, said to her: The Holy Ghost shall come into thee, and the power of the most High shall overshadow thee. And therefore also the Holy which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.” Luke 1

The Holy Spirit comes into the Virgin Mary and she conceived the Son of God. So that’s the Spirit generating the Son.

"Dixit autem Maria ad angelum quomodo fiet istud quoniam virum non cognosco

Et respondens angelus dixit ei Spiritus Sanctus superveniet in te et virtus Altissimi obumbrabit tibi ideoque et quod nascetur sanctum vocabitur Filius Dei."

Of course Jesus being conceived by the Holy Spirit is an event that happened in time. The Son existed before his conception in Our Lady. So you’re mixing apples and oranges here.
 
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JackQ:
as we learn from scripture, everything that the Father does, the Son does.
Really? The Father causes His own being. Does the Son cause His own being?
 
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JackQ:
And since the Father processes the Spirit, so does the Son, because, as we learn from scripture, everything that the Father does, the Son does.
I don’t think that is an acceptable statement of Church dogma. The Council of Florence affirmed that the procession of the Spirit from the Father and the Son was identical to what Eastern theology called the procession of the Spirit from the Father through the Son. That procession was not by way of origin but by way of manifestation. This article explains the situation well.
At the Eastern Council of Blachernae (Constantinople) in 1285, in fact, the decisions of the Council of Lyons and the pro-Latin theology of former Patriarch John XI Bekkos (1275-1282) were soundly rejected, under the leadership of Patriarch Gregory II, also known as Gregory of Cyprus (1282-1289). At the same time, this council produced a significant statement addressing the theological issue of the Filioque. While firmly rejecting the “double procession” of the Spirit from the Father and the Son, the statement spoke of an “eternal manifestation” of the Spirit through the Son.
usccb.org/seia/filioque.htm
 
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JPrejean:
The Council of Florence affirmed that the procession of the Spirit from the Father and the Son was identical to what Eastern theology called the procession of the Spirit from the Father through the Son. That procession was not by way of origin but by way of manifestation. This article explains the situation well.

usccb.org/seia/filioque.htm
In the main the Statements issued by the North American Orthodox-Catholic Theological Consultation cause either raised eyebrows or polite disregard in the Orthodox Churches. There is a feeling abroad that the Orthodox participants are not robust enough in challenging their interlocuters with the Orthodox teaching.

They do however bring themselves to point out that the filioque teaching and also that of papal supremacy, agreed to by the forlorn Orthodox delegates ar Florence (who seem strangely similar to the delegates involved in the American dialogue!), was formally rejected by Constantinople in 1484. See the last sentences…

Following extensive discussions by experts from both sides, often centered on the interpretation of patristic texts, the union of the Churches was declared on July 6, 1439. The Council’s decree of reunion, Laetentur caeli, recognized the legitimacy of the Western view of the Spirit’s eternal procession from the Father and the Son, as from a single principle and in a single spiration. The Filioque was presented here as having the same meaning as the position of some early Eastern Fathers that the Spirit exists or proceeds “through the Son.” The Council also approved a text which spoke of the Pope as having “primacy over the whole world,” as “head of the whole church and father and teacher of all Christians.” Despite Orthodox participation in these discussions, the decisions of Florence – like the union decree of Lyons II - were never received by a representative body of bishops or faithful in the East, and were formally rejected in Constantinople in 1484.

The North American Orthodox-Catholic Theological Consultation appears to want to return us to the agreements reached at Florence but these were roundly rejected by the Orthodox and even caused the exile and, in one instance, the murder of the Orthodox signatories. One hopes that the American theologians do not face a like fate :eek: But seriously, the way forward will not be a return to Florence.
 
But seriously, the way forward will not be a return to Florence.
I concur entirely. I actually believe that the way forward will be a return to the Cappadocian fathers’ defense of the Trinity against the Eunomians and an acknowledgement that St. Augustine (to a certain extent) and St. Thomas Aquinas (to a greater extent) misconceived the persons of the Trinity as relationships within an absolutely simple divine essence. The point of mentioning Florence is to observe to Catholics that we are not dogmatically bound to the “Latin” explanation of the Trinity. Many Catholics seem to feel that we are dogmatically obliged to define the notion of the Trinity as relations of opposition in an absolutely simple divine essence, and my point is that we are not bound in this way and that to the extent this understanding is wrong, we ought to be willing to accept correction. Only if we affirm a common Triadological understanding can we expect to have a meaningful discussion about papal authority. The problem with Florence was exactly that there was insufficient respect for the Orthodox Triadological concerns in the first place. Trying to put papal authority into that discussion under those circumstances was putting the cart before the horse. No wonder that Florence was rejected in the East!
 
Fr Ambrose:
If you will deny that the Spirit proceeds eternally from the Father and the Son as from one principle and a single spiration, then we may have an area of agreement from which to proceed towards a common belief.

Do you deny this? Yes? No?
Why should I deny something that I accept wholeheartedly? Why should I deny something which I know does not contradict Scripture or Tradition?

Again, the path is through understanding and through not forcing it. As I said the Catholic position is “There is no disagreement.” We believe in the same thing that is said only slightly differently. What you believe we also believe. It is not contrary.

Again if you say it is contrary, then please put it as a no in the list we have complied.

(Sigh) It is really not for us mortals to be able to unite the Body of Christ. It is up to God. We can only try to help with the best of our abilities.
 
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Aris:
Why should I deny something that I accept wholeheartedly.
Because the Orthodox faith denies these things and your assertion was that “that only leads me to conclude that there is no difference in our belief.” Ergo, if there is no difference in our belief, you should affirm and deny the things which the Orthodox either affirm or deny.

As for the list, I think that both Prodromos and myself have asked questions about its propositions which have not received answers. Someone pointed out that we use the same words but we give them different meanings, so we need all the propositions to be carefully explained.
 
quote=Aris It is really not for us mortals to be able to unite the Body of Christ. It is up to God. We can only try to help with the best of our abilities.
[/quote]

It took centuries for Arianism to disappear, with the argument centred on one small iota in one word in the Creed - homoousios or homoiousios. How long will it take to dispose of a whole word -filioque?
 
Fr Ambrose:
Because the Orthodox faith denies these things and your assertion was that “that only leads me to conclude that there is no difference in our belief.” Ergo, if there is no difference in our belief, you should affirm and deny the things which the Orthodox either affirm or deny.

As for the list, I think that both Prodromos and myself have asked questions about its propositions which have not received answers. Someone pointed out that we use the same words but we give them different meanings, so we need all the propositions to be carefully explained.
What you ask is impossible. How can I deny something that is not in contradiction in Scripture. Even the councils up to the seventh ecumenical council does not contradict this. I know we are going in circle but you have to state your case why this is not so.

We have given biblical proofs and that should be answered.

ex. Spirit of the Son - How should this be understood?

Sorry but the correct statement should be we use different words but have the same meaning. I had not explained the propositions fully because I had based the statements on biblical quotes. Therefore, you should qualify why it is not correct to use those biblical statements as the basis.
 
Fr Ambrose:
Because the Orthodox faith denies these things and your assertion was that “that only leads me to conclude that there is no difference in our belief.” Ergo, if there is no difference in our belief, you should affirm and deny the things which the Orthodox either affirm or deny.
But suppose we do deny that the Holy Spirit takes His origin in any way from the Son? Surely, the simple use of the phrase “from the Father and the Son” cannot be heterodox. Consider the following:

*"[T]he goodness of [the divine] nature, the holiness of [that] nature, and the royal dignity reach from the Father through the only-begotten [Son] to the Holy Spirit. Since we confess the persons in this manner, there is no infringing upon the holy dogma of the monarchy" (The Holy Spirit 18:47 [A.D. 375]).
– St. Basil the Great

“[The] Father conveys the notion of unoriginate, unbegotten, and Father always; the only-begotten Son is understood along with the Father, coming from him but inseparably joined to him. Through the Son and with the Father, immediately and before any vague and unfounded concept interposes between them, the Holy Spirit is also perceived conjointly” (Against Eunomius 1 [A.D. 380]).
– Gregory of Nyssa

“Since the Holy Spirit when he is in us effects our being conformed to God, and he actually proceeds from the Father and Son, it is abundantly clear that he is of the divine essence, in it in essence and proceeding from it” (Treasury of the Holy Trinity, thesis 34 [ca. A.D. 424]).
– St. Cyril of Alexandria

“The Spirit of the Word is like a love of the Father for the mysteriously begotten Word, and it is the same love that the beloved Word and Son of the Father has for the one who begot him. That love comes from the Father at the same time as it is with the Son and it naturally rests on the Son.”
–St. Gregory Palamas, Chapters, 36 (PG 150:1144D-1145A).*
 
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Aris:
ex. Spirit of the Son - How should this be understood?
In order to properly understand it, you have to distinguish between the origin of the hypostasis and the procession of the shared divine nature. The hypostasis of the Holy Spirit has its sole origin from the Father as the one principle of Trinity. This is the universal patristic doctrine of “monarchy of the Father” (mono- = one, arche = principle). The Father is also the fount of the divine essence, which all Persons of the Trinity share, so it also makes sense to talk about the way in which this divine essence “moves” from one Person to another. This is known as perichoresis (literally “dancing around”) among the Fathers and was later called circumincession (later still, circuminsession) in Latin theology. In that respect, there is procession of the divine essence from the Father through the Son.

One might think of it as being somewhat analogous to a pond and a spring connected by a channel. The hypostatic generation is akin to cutting the channel and the pond into the earth. In the Trinitarian analogy, this is the sole work of the Father. The procession of the divine essence is like the water emerging from the spring and flowing through the channel to the pond. In this sense, the spring (the Father) is still the source, but the channel (the Son) shares in the process of bringing the water to the pond (the Holy Spirit). By way of analogy, the confusion comes from the fact that the language we use in the West does not clearly distinguish between digging the pond and filling the pond with water. It is equivalent to saying “the Father and the Son make the pond,” and it is even more confusing because the Nicene Creed said that “The Father makes the pond” (where “make” means “to dig”). The Orthodox churches rightly want us to return to the older formula (which removes all possibility of confusion), and if we are to affirm the filioque, to do it in a clearer way that is separate from the Nicene Creed.
 
Fr Ambrose:
Same reply as above. New Advent is out of date with contemporary theological developments in the Roman Catholic world.
New Advent is correct. You didn’t answer the question.
Fr Ambrose:
Is the Holy Spirit 2 persons or one? The Spirit of the Father and the Spirit of the Son makes him two Spirits. Catholics try to avoid this conclusion by defining that he proceeds from both of them as from one principle. Well, WHAT or WHO is that principle that causes the Holy Spirit?
steve b:
Not 1 Spirit but 2 different Spirits? Holy Smokes!!! If I misunderstand you just hollar. So let’s do the math. You agree The Father is one person, and the Son is one person, correct? But the HS = 3 persons, one being the Spirit of the Father, one being the Spirit of the Son, and one being Himself? So we have 1Father + 1Son + 3 HS’s =5 persons of the Blessed Trinity? :eek:

No wonder we’re having trouble with this subject! But it’s gettin interestin now!
Fr Ambrose:
This is not totally logical. The Father is eternal but he is the eternal origin of the Son and the Spirit although in different ways.
steve b:
If there was a time when the Son or the HS was not there, even for 1 blink, then They aren’t Divine, or eternal.

Did you read the definition of the HS I gave you from New Advent?
Fr Ambrose:

We are unchanged; we are still the same as we were in the eighth century… Oh that you could only consent to be again what you were once, when we were both united in faith and communion!”
-Alexis Khomiakov
Unchanged since the 8th century and apparantly proud of it. Do you see that this admission, is why the term stagnant has been used by some to describe Orthodox theology?.
 
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Aris:
Sorry but the correct statement should be we use different words but have the same meaning.
No, we use the same words, as I said, and we give them different meanings.

Take, as one example, the assertion which has often been aired by Catholics, in this thread and others, that filioque does not on fact mean filioque (and the Son) but it means per filium (through the Son).

So when Orthodox (bless their ignorance!) see the word filioque in the Amplified Nicene Creed they see just that -filioque. And yet this is not so with the Catholics. They see filioque and they understand per filium.

Same word. Totally different meaning. It must be the only instance in the Latin language where -que means per, where and means through.
 
steve b:
New Advent is correct. You didn’t answer the question.
What is the question? Please forgive me, but after so many days with the Forum out of action, when real life has been rushing on as usual, I cannot recall a question from so many days ago,
Unchanged since the 8th century and apparantly proud of it. Do you see that this admission, is why the term stagnant has been used by some to describe Orthodox theology?.
It is well known that the oldest wells give the clearest water.

When pushed, the Orthodox will admit that they are unchanged since the 1st century. 🙂 The task of the Ecumenical Councils was not to produce innovative doctrine but to clarify the Church’s teaching when it was being opposed and corrupted by false teachers.

Orthodoxy is a living connection with the apostolic Church, standing in a great stream of tradition which makes the Apostles seem as yesterday and makes their teaching as vibrant today as it was then.

Thus saith the Lord: “Stand at the crossroads, and see and ask for the ancient paths which is the good way, and walk therein, and you shall find rest for your souls.”
-Jeremiah 6:16
 
Fr Ambrose:
Take, as one example, the assertion which has often been aired by Catholics, in this thread and others, that filioque does not on fact mean filioque (and the Son) but it means per filium (through the Son).
That’s not the argument. The argument is that the phrase “from the Father and the Son” was used in the same sense as “through the Son” in the patristic writings. Whether it could rightly be substituted into the Nicene Creed is another matter entirely, but the use of the phrase itself does not appear to be controversial.
 
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JPrejean:
That’s not the argument.
I was trying to keep it simple, to illustrate that we use the same word with different meanings.

The Orthodox look at filioque and they understand filioque.

The Catholics say filioque but they understand per filium.
 
Fr Ambrose:
My point was that in any case where the use of ex filium is permissible, then filioque would be as well. The question is “which procession?” That’s why I want to get away from the idea that “through” or “and” matters. If the phrase is being applied to the correct procession, then either “through” or “and” would be correct. If it’s being applied to the wrong procession (i.e., the origin of the hypostasis), then it’s incorrect to use the phrase no matter whether it includes “through” or “and.” Otherwise, you compromise the monarchy of the Father.
 
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JPrejean:
Fr Ambrose:
My point was that in any case where the use of ex filium is permissible, then filioque would be as well.
"Non ex Filio esse dicimus: sed Filii Spiritum nominamus.—Damascen. lib. i. Fid. Orth. c. 11

“We do not say that he is from the Son [has his existence from the Son], but we name him as the Spirit of the Son” -St John of Damascus. On the Orthodox Faith, chapter 11
The question is “which procession?” That’s why I want to get away from the idea that “through” or “and” matters.
I understand what you are saying and agree. But I was replying to the people here who make a great deal of the *through * and *and * distinction as regards the word filioque. It’s a juggling act to keep all the conversations going at the same time 🙂
 
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