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flameburns623
Guest
Infallibility and Marian dogmas in particular ARE stumbling-blocks for me. Purgatory is another. The focus on works rather than on grace is a fourth. Auricular confession is NOT an issue. I could come up with a couple of others if I reflect a moment or so. The de-emphasis on personal Bible study, the lack of adult religious education programs, come to mind though these are not insurmountable issues.I was just wondering that if the CC dropped their Traditions of honoring Mary and the saints, the sacrament of Confession to a priest and the papal infallibility doctrine, would Protestants become Catholic?
The reason I listed these is because these seem to be the main ones Protestants have issues with.
Also, if your reason is not listed in the ones I mentioned, feel free to share.
Protestants that converted to Catholicism can also share the reason why they converted, if they’d like.![]()
Some of the Roman Catholics are using the OP’s question, and some of the responses, as a springboard for giving once again the standard, ‘pat’, and wholly unsatisfactory Catholic apologetic responses to these issues. The fact is, that while such responses are a good opening to begin a dialogue–and while SOME Protestants may find them sufficient–other, more-reflective Protestants such as myself find these responses wanting.
For example: prayer is NOT just a synonym for ‘petition’ in Christian theology: prayer, for Christians, is a supernatural act of worship, and as such prayers can NEVER be addressed to Mary or to any other person, living or dead. You are NOT praying to your living mother, brother, sister, or fellow-Christian, because your request to them does NOT constitute a supernatural act nor an act of worship.
Praying to St. XYZ, however, is both a supernatural act (they are unable to hear your petitions by way of any natural means); AND it is an act of ‘worship’, which is what ‘dulia’ actually means. (Remember that Roman Catholic theology posits a non-existent distinction between ‘dulia’, ‘hyperdulia’, and ‘latria’: the words, in fact, are synonyms and the distinction made is a distinction which in fact lacks any substantive difference).
These sorts of arguments can be pursued to greater detail in other threads–there are plenty of threads already extant on this forum, and no limits I am aware of on creating new ones if someone chooses. Hopefully, though, I have answered the OP’s original question, at least from my own personal perspective.
