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benhur
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Not as clearly and authoritatively as Trent.The Council of Carthage made it clear what books were to be in the Bible, that included the deuterocanonical books.
Not as clearly and authoritatively as Trent.The Council of Carthage made it clear what books were to be in the Bible, that included the deuterocanonical books.
Well put ,I thought something like that was the case.The problem with that is that Carthage was a provincial council. It wasn’t binding outside of the geographic area which Carthage oversaw.
In that lies the problem. Absolute authority absolutely corrupts. It is dangerous when men ( and women) of the Church are less than the Church. Does one for all and all for one fit ? Like here in the US we are usually at trouble’s doorstep when the Government is bigger than the people. The Church has had it’s share of saints whose wisdom on this matter was “set aside” for the supposed good of the bigger Church. I am thinking of Jerome as an example. Even the 50 -60 scholars of the original KJV, who included the books in a seperate section I think.Those books were/are/will be used in the Mass/Divine Liturgy of the Christian Church, both east and west, Catholic and Orthodox, now for nearing 2,000 years and until the Parousia.
This is all a question of authority. Man’s versus the Church’s.
You have just described the reformers! Men who thought themselves superior to the God-given authority of the Church. You have read Acts 15? That first authoritative Church decision is the only reason why you do not have to find a Rabbi with a scalpel.In that lies the problem. Absolute authority absolutely corrupts. It is dangerous when men ( and women) of the Church are less than the Church. Does one for all and all for one fit ? Like here in the US we are usually at trouble’s doorstep when the Government is bigger than the people. The Church has had it’s share of saints whose wisdom on this matter was “set aside” for the supposed good of the bigger Church. I am thinking of Jerome as an example. Even the 50 -60 scholars of the original KJV, who included the books in a seperate section I think.
No such thing as the “two listings.” The Council of Jamnia, a favorite Catholic canard, is totally bogus. You can read threads here about it or look on Wikipedia.It has to do with the two listings of OT books that existed around the first century. There was a list of books used by those within Israel, and a list used by those outside of Israel.
The answer to the OP can essentially be found in this other thread of the same topic:
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?threadid=403876
I don’t know if that’s the adjective I’d use
I can only contribute so much here because I do accept them as inspired Scripture. However, it would be erroneous to say that all Christians accepted them for 1500 years. Many did not.
You two are right. I misspoke.Not at all because the first statement is false. Christians from Jerome to Cajetan declared them to be useful but not inspired.
Thanks. That’s interesting, I didn’t know that. But what exactly is it that places them on a lower level than the rest, if you don’t mind me asking?We accept them just at a lower level than Catholics do. They are useful but not inspired. This is consistent with a minority view in church history.
Trent only included a portion of the LXX; Luther’s canon (which included the deuterocanonicals plus the Prayer of Manasseh) had nothing to do with the Hebrew canon.Not quite. Canon was decided upon in the 400s. Trent only dogmatically included the LXX, in response to reformers going with the Hebrew canon.
Read my other statments. Besides, the councils at Hippo, Rome, and Florence also made it clear about the canon. Trent made it very clear in order not to have any kind of Protestant thought on these books get into the Church. Trent was a council reaffirming the doctrines of the Catholic Church.Not as clearly and authoritatively as Trent.
For the sake of this argument, let’s disregard the “council” - real or imagined. The 39 book “canon” is that of the Pharisees! What did our Lord have to say about them? A hint is found in Matthew 23. That Pharisaic canon was not used in Christianity until the German rebellion in the 16th century. Nothing more should have to be said!No such thing as the “two listings.” The Council of Jamnia, a favorite Catholic canard, is totally bogus. You can read threads here about it or look on Wikipedia.
Trent only included a portion of the LXX; Luther’s canon (which included the deuterocanonicals plus the Prayer of Manasseh) had nothing to do with the Hebrew canon.
What, like Matthew 23.2-3?For the sake of this argument, let’s disregard the “council” - real or imagined. The 39 book “canon” is that of the Pharisees! What did our Lord have to say about them? A hint is found in Matthew 23. That Pharisaic canon was not used in Christianity until the German rebellion in the 16th century. Nothing more should have to be said!
The Pharisees!
Agreed on the bit about Jamnia. But what do you mean there was “no such thing as the ‘two listings’?” Are you saying that no one thought of subtracting seven books until Luther came along?No such thing as the “two listings.” The Council of Jamnia, a favorite Catholic canard, is totally bogus. You can read threads here about it or look on Wikipedia.
It is not canonicle, but I personally believe it to be inspired. Many other Catholics believe that too about 3 Maccabees.So 3 Maccabees is inspired right?
So Catholics are the Protestants of Orthodoxy?It is not canonicle, but I personally believe it to be inspired. Many other Catholics believe that too about 3 Maccabees.
You two are right. I misspoke.There were some disagreements. Especially before the councils.
But are there any examples, after the councils, of Christians still rejecting these books? That’s what I was mostly thinking of. This is an honest question as I haven’t researched the topic all that much.
House Harkonnen, you mentioned Jerome, but didn’t he eventually change his mind on the canon after Rome? I could be wrong, but I thought I remember reading that.
Thanks. That’s interesting, I didn’t know that. But what exactly is it that places them on a lower level than the rest, if you don’t mind me asking?
That’s what I’m mostly confused about. I can’t seem to find a criterion for inspiration that would exclude Wisdom for example, but include Ecclesiastes. Because I look at a book like Ecclesiastes, which has an almost nihilistic depiction of life and death, and then I read Wisdom, which has one of the clearest prophecies of Christ’s passion I’ve ever read. And I just have a hard time seeing why that book is considered not inspired and Ecclesiastes is.
So what’s the reasoning behind saying the deuterocanon is on a lesser level than the rest?
Yes. Loads of Christians disputed the canon for centuries. Even councils themselves blundered and got it wrong, the Council of Rome declares that only one epistle of John is canon. The councils of Rome and Carthage couldn’t even agree on that. Since there was debate, Trent had to declare the canon for the RC once and for all, since there had yet been no official declaration.But are there any examples, after the councils, of Christians still rejecting these books? That’s what I was mostly thinking of. This is an honest question as I haven’t researched the topic all that much.
Sure. But that doesn’t really matter. Lots of Christians change their mind about lots of things, that doesn’t mean that there wasn’t debate.House Harkonnen, you mentioned Jerome, but didn’t he eventually change his mind on the canon after Rome? I could be wrong, but I thought I remember reading that.
Their lack of presence in the Hebrew canon and their myriad errors. Doesn’t mean they aren’t valuable, they just aren’t as great as the rest of scripture.Thanks. That’s interesting, I didn’t know that. But what exactly is it that places them on a lower level than the rest, if you don’t mind me asking?
I have always wondered this myself. WHO decided for all of Protestantism that these books were not inspired? I have never been given an answer for that…I know, I know, another canon of Scripture thread. These are always fun.But I’m hoping this discussion will turn out to be worthwhile for both sides. (hey, you never know.)
Anyways, I’ve wondered this for a while now, but I’ve never been able to ask a Protestant in person, so I thought I’d do it here.
My question is two parts basically:
Thanks!
- Why exactly do protestants not accept as Scripture the seven books that Catholics do? What’s the criterion you use to determine what belongs and what doesn’t?
- What do you guys think of the fact that for 1500 years all Christians accepted those books as inspired? Does that put the inspiration of any of the other books of the Bible in doubt for you? If not, why not?
Why don’t Protestants think these books are inspired today?For my fellow Catholics: Usually when this topic comes up, someone will make the claim that Martin Luther took out these books because they disagreed with his teachings. That may or may not be true, but I’d rather not turn this thread into a debate about that. It usually just goes nowhere. So let’s avoid bringing Luther’s motives into the discussion ok?I just want to focus on why Protestants today don’t accept these books.
No. The Pharisees? There is no evidence for this whatsoever. Zero.For the sake of this argument, let’s disregard the “council” - real or imagined. The 39 book “canon” is that of the Pharisees! What did our Lord have to say about them? A hint is found in Matthew 23. That Pharisaic canon was not used in Christianity until the German rebellion in the 16th century. Nothing more should have to be said!
The Pharisees!