TERGO can you define what you mean by a permanent state of mortal sin and where you have drawn this terminology from. I believe the Church in its new Canon Law and Catechisms has intentionally avoided such ambiguous expressions as once found in the Baltimore Catechism for example.
I don’t mean this to come off disrespectfully, but I had to LOL at the idea of the Baltimore Catechism using ambiguous expressions as opposed to the Code of Canon Law of 1983 and the current Catechism of the Catholic Church. (though I must hasten to add that I do not, repeat NOT think that either of the latter two contains much in the way of ‘ambiguous expression’ either).
That being said, perhaps if I explain ‘permanent state of mortal sin’ this way it will not be ambiguous. A person who is divorced and remarried without decree of nullity is in objective mortal sin and the permanency of that sin exists so long as the person engages in marital relations until or unless there is a decree of nullity granted for the previous marriage(s) and the union is convalidated or recognized. For example, if the prior spouse dies, there is no need for a decree of nullity, but the current marriage needs to be convalidated. If the prior spouse is alive, then there needs to be a decree of nullity.
Now let’s take it point by point.
A. Person remarries, engages in marital relations. Mortal sin A. This mortal sin is not confessed, so it ‘remains’.
B. Person engages in marital relations, again. Mortal sin B, on top of mortal sin A which has not been confessed.
C. Person wishes to go to confession, having realized the grave (mortal) sin incurred. But tells priest that due to the bonds of marriage as recognized by spouse, along with the marital debt, that he or she is going to be engaging in marital relations when he or she and/or spouse choose. Person cannot be absolved.
The person is living in a permanent state of mortal sin from the first marital relations in the second marriage.
D. Person wishes to go to confession (as above C). Tells priest that he or she will live as brother and sister. Priest absolves, and person is now out of mortal sin.
Now here is the difference.
Let’s suppose that after D, the person is tempted and has relations again. Goes back to priest, confesses, says they will firmly again try to live as brother and sister. Priest absolves.
This I think is what people believe the current guidelines will provide (but frankly, which are already provided for). The person truly is trying to live as brother and sister, mostly succeeds, sometimes fails, and the failure can be absolved.
BUT --and this is what needs to be clarified,
E. Scenario: Person presents for confession, knowing Church teaching. Tells priest that he/she does not have a decree of nullity, but truly FEELS that this is a valid marriage and the prior one was not. And because this is a ‘real marriage’, feels that there is no need to live as brother and sister, but to be able to engage in relations freely, and that those relations (despite the person being in a situation where there is no decree of nullity, and despite the fact that throughout history persons in this situation, and even those today who feel that they are sinning, were NOT able to have relations without being in a state of mortal sin) are perfectly fine because the individual’s conscience says they are.
I believe the above is NOT what has been held throughout the history of the Church, from Jesus down through our present age, and that what it amounts to is saying that what is sin for X, or in certain ‘eras’ is not sin for Y, or in certain eras.
And I reject it. Now again, I am NOT saying that this is what Pope Francis has said. I am saying that some already have taken it to be what he said, and that without clarification from him, will continue to say is correct, and that it has, and will continue, to split the Church, which is a terrible thing which I am sure none of us, least of all Pope Francis, wishes to see.