Jfz178… A good starting point answering your question brings us back to the early sees. Then, there were 4 major sees: Rome, Antioch, Alexandria and Jerusalem. The bishop of Rome (successor of St. Peter) was considered first among equals. Subsequent sees followed (Constantinople, Athens, Cyprus, Ephesus, etc…) Each see had in its own culture. They spoke different languages, and even had different rites. These rites still exist today. And they were the Catholic Church.
Rome (The Roman Catholic Church) used Latin as we know it. During and after the reign of Constantine, the Roman Catholic Church rapidly expanded throughout the Roman Empire (Europe) and with it—Latin. Subsequently, European catholic missionaries brought Roman Catholicism to Asia, South America and other parts of the world.
As you can see, Aramaic (the language that Jesus spoke) was not (in fact never) used in Rome when the Roman Catholic Church expanded. What we know about Catholicism in the West, Asia and South America is really the Roman (Rome) Catholic Church, whose leader (the Pope) is first among equals over many other Eastern Churches.
This is a very, very, very brief snap shot of Church history that I hope will help you to begin to understand why Aramaic is not used or spoken in the Roman Catholic Church.
Another important point worth noting is, within the Roman Catholic Church, there are many rites/Masses. The EF (Latin) as we know today, was the rite used in Rome for hundreds of years before the Council of Trent, As a result of Council of Trent, the Roman Catholic Church obligated the entire Roman Catholic Church to use it (with few exceptions). For about 400 years, the EF was the main/official/ordinary rite/Mass of the Roman Church until Vatican II—which subsequently produced the OF.