Think of a situation that you are offered two ice creams one which is chocolate that you love and another one which is vanilla which you hate. Couldn’t you pick up vanilla? Of course you can.
That be the case, I’m in agreement, though the way you phrased it between “free” and “non-free” I find slightly troublesome. But for the sake of continuing the line of thought, I’ll agree that there are sacrifices of total indifference (if thats what you would call freedom) sometimes to intervene in what is in bias (non-freedom, if I am correct). Though the question of what moves one from staying in utter indifference to intervention is perhaps an area I would ask your opinion on.
What would you call that? That thing must be non-contingent.
Yes, I do agree. Total regress doesn’t seem like an option much.
Here is another argument: Can you stop a chain of causality, chain of thought for example, whenever you wish and start doing something else by which I mean you create a new chain of causality?
Why yes, I suppose you could stop a chain of thought from occurring, and thus also initiate a chain of thought.
So if you are free do stop a chain of causality and create a new one without being subjected to any bias then you are uncaused cause.
Now this is oncemore where I must say that the problems arise. For I don’t think it so that the mind is not subjected to bias (and I do say the mind very specifically and not the person, as if the mind is the initiator of thoughts it must necessarily be in different states to cause different effects/ thoughts. We’ve discussed this part in length and if I’m not mistaken we’ve both agreed that this must be true if the mind is not working like a computer algorithm. I think we also agreed that the mind must also not be completely separate of thoughts like your initial hypothesis, but instead the thoughts must be embedded in it to some degree, lest it be as a camera, as my analogy went). For to think, which is an attribute of the mind, comes with extended attributes like judgment and consideration, to which as was agreed a final cause or principle is necessary for to refrence.
Now, perhaps you would call this an unfree state of mind, yes? If that be so, then we may ask what of the completely free and totally unbiased aspect of the mind is ever manifest in decisions? Or in any faculty of the mind? For I cannot think of many examples. This to say that the mind most certainly cannot be both a biased agent and unbiased (to which we have manifest evidence for the former and not the latter). I would think it must be of either one or the other, but not both. But that be so, then we are left with two options:
a) the mind is unbiased totally (which would require some explanation for the initiation of biased thoughts)
b) the mind is biased (which totally explains the bias in thoughts)
I don’t think I am convinced of a) so for the time being I must subscribe my belief in b).