Free will in heaven?

[Camron]

Free-will is free-will, the freedom to choose good. But it becomes pure in Heaven.

So then we can abuse our free-will and there is a distinction, in some sense, between “free-will” and “pure free-will”.

Certainly we can abuse our freedom by choosing evil, but this isn’t why God gave us free-will.

I agree with you, that’s why I think we started of with a “purer free-will” at least in some sense. It must have been at least “more pure” than the current state of fallen humanity and yet “less pure” than the pure free-will we will have in heaven.

He gave it to us we would choose Him. For He created us for Himself, He created us so we can share in His happiness and life, and this out of mercy for us. In the beginning, Adam and Eve had free-will, untainted by any inclination to evil.

So then isn’t this a “purer free-will”, something must have been at least “more pure” than the current state of fallen humanity’s “free-will”"

They did not enjoy the Beatific Vision, so they could have sinned. And they did sin, by disobeying God.

I agree. I just think that people are trying to distance themselves from these distinctions of “free-will”, “purer free-will”, and “pure free-will”.

The reason God did not stop Adam and Eve from sinning is because He dose not steal His graces away from us, and, because He foreknew the Redemption of man.

This is indeed Adam’s happy accident, something foreknown by God. But the way it’s worded by you makes it sound as if God deliberately set the stage for Adam to sin so that God could redeem him in Christ. There’s something wrong with that in my opinion, because it deliberately appears as if God did give us a free-will for the specific intention of testing our free-will.

Didn’t you say this before?

Certainly we can abuse our freedom by choosing evil, but this isn’t why God gave us free-will…

So then why did God give us a free-will, if not to test us according to how you’ve worded the argument?

In a sense, He permitted the fall of man so man would be redeemed; by the Redemption, man has obtained greater graces from God - such as the sacraments and the Grace of Jesus Christ - than had man not sinned.

So then man HAD to sin to experience the fullness of God’s Graces???

Mary did NOT sin and she experiences the FULLNESS of God’s Graces to the point that she is the Queen of Heaven; the most blessed fully human being to ever walk the face of the Earth, even a Mediatrix of Grace according to some.

I think there’s something wrong with this argument that man had to sin to experience the fullness of God’s Graces.

No one can fully understand God’s Ways, but at times He lifts the veils for us, so that we have greater trust in Him, pray more, love more, and become holier, our glory in Heaven increasing by such a progression from lower to higher holiness. Everything God dose, He dose for us - nothing He dose is selfish or self-centered. Even when He demands us to worship Him, He only demands it so He can give us graces in return, returning Love for our return of love for His Love for us. And He wants us to love Him for He Himself, not for what He gives us, so we can have a greater share in His life and happiness in Heaven. This is why it is said that God is All-Generous.

I agree mostly with the last part. There are some minor things that I would question, but they’re not as important as the central questions regarding free-will.

 

[Camron]

Hmmm…perhaps in hindsight it might be better to say:

1. **Free-Will Uncorrupted **(FWU: before the Fall),
2. **Free-Will Corrupted **(FWC: after the Fall),
3. **Free-Will Incorruptible **(FWI: in Heaven)…

This seems to capture the ideas quickly and concisely.