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EnchantedEve
Guest
You are correct, I did not mention the 6th commandment, or the Old Testament directly because your objection was regarding the Church’s manner of interpretation, indicating that they were not interpreting according to the original understanding. I therefore gave examples from the Rabbis, for who else but they would understand the original Hebrew context? Surely they would understand what the original Hebrew meant?I’m going to repost here what I added in edit to my previous post since I suspect you replied before I edited. ^^;
As for redefining the term, yes, they are. By ignoring the original contextual meaning in the original language it was presented in, they are choosing to interpret it according to what the same words mean at the time of interpretation instead of at the time they were being given.
Here’s an alternative example.
In the Chronicles of Narnia, the word “queer” is used frequently. Back when those novels were written, the word “queer” meant “weird, strange.” It had nothing to do with homosexuality. When someone in those books called another character queer, they were not calling the person homosexual. However, if we interpret it now without considering the original meaning, then we would automatically assume the person was being called homosexual.
The Catholic Church began interpreting things around 2000 years after the book of Exodus was written, using what at the time was “modern” Latin rather than the original Hebrew words, context, and cultural references.
Also, you go on about everything but the actual 6th Commandment in that post and the Hebrew for adultery, and much of what you quote is not even out of the Old Testament, but rather other Jewish documents.
The writings of the Rabbis based on the original Hebrew appear to indicate a general agreement with the views of the Church vis a vis homosexuality. Thus with regard to your objection, is the Church’s view less valid when perceived from its original Hebrew context? No, this does not appear to be the case. If anything, it shows that when read in Hebrew, the Rabbis perceived the word adultry in the same way, as having a broader application. The Church therefore, is reading it as the Jews would read it, and therefore their interpretation cannot be that far of base, can it?
I believe the writings of Moses interpreting the 6th and 9th commandment, as the Church likewise does, in Leviticus, etc. are sufficiently well known that I need not render them again here, unless requested.