It’s mentioned in the article that “The genetic scans showed a clustering of the same genetic pattern among the gay men on three chromosomes – chromosomes 7, 8, and 10. These common genetic patterns were shared by 60% of the gay men in the study.” This means that the rest of the men in this study, 40%, do NOT have this genetic pattern and are still gay. If it was genetical predisposition, they should ALL (or at least, let’s say, 90-95% of them) have it. As has been reexplained in previous posts, genetics do not work that way. All the study said was there is a PREDISPOSITION to being homosexual. A predisposition only means there is a high likelyhood of being gay not a definate. It is likely nurture plays a big role as does nature.
Another flaw I do see in this research is that it does NOT include a group of heterosexual men, in order to compare the genetic patterns in those same chromosomes in gay and straight men. There is a group of heterosexual men. They were not included in the findings because we already know what the genes of heterosexual males look like. In order to have a scientific experiment, you must have a control (previously mapped - no need to reproduce again) group who do not have the variable being tested. That is how they get the difference of the chromosomes. You ALWAYS need a group to compare the results with, that’s one of the reasons for pharmaceutical companies to always have two groups of people whentesting a new drug - a placebo group, in order to compare the results with the group taking the real medication. What if it turns out that, let’s say, 50 or 60% of straight men have a similar pattern on these same chromosomes? How will they explain it then? They won’t be able to, that’s why they don’t have a group of straight men included in the research.
And the fact that this is the very same doctor who’s pevious research on the subject and methods are being questioned, is more that enough for me to not trust him… Just a matter of credibility.