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IanM
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Really? “Could just as well” ??? Where in the Sacred Tradition of the Church is it denied Christ was a man? Does not “Son” denote a male? There are all kinds of passages referring to the masculinity of Jesus Christ.could just as well be translated “became human.”
My apologies for using ChurchMilitant as a sourceNo one is denying that Jesus was a man, least of all Bishop Bode. I think his words have been taken out of context in order to manufacture a controversy.
Look, I’m kind of busy for the next several hours, so I can’t research this right now, but I challenge all truthseekers to look up the full text of Bishop Bode’s remarks so we can try to figure out what he intended to say.
I found this on Lifesite, which provides a link to the original story found in a German publicationI would like to know what Bishop Strickland’s source was. His statement, posted on Twitter, does not suggest that he dug deeper than the Edward Pentin tweet shown in the OP. He seems to be building on the same misunderstanding put forth by Pentin, the ridiculous accusation, based on a poor translation, claiming that Bishop Bode denied that Jesus was a man.
Edward Pentin, Church Militant, and anyone else who bases their charge of heresy on 4 words, taken out of context, and poorly translated, may be guilty of rash judgment.
His original words may have been clear enough in German. He contrasted two words, Mensch and Mann, which in English are often translated the same, man.I hope we will see a response from Bishop Bode that clarifies his words.
You posted this in the Sacred Scripture category but I’m not seeing a Sacred Scripture question. What would you like to discuss?
And yet, Christ became man by becoming “a man.” Any uncertainty regarding the reasons and implications of that fact is thoroughly addressed throughout the rest of scripture. The conclusions are cemented by the church “fathers,” and underscored by 2000 years of tradition, least of all which includes the understanding that the Church is His bride.In my opinion, this distinction is perfectly reasonable in a synodal discussion about women. His point, I believe, was that Christ, though he is male, is first of all and more importantly human. The significance of the Incarnation with regard to our salvation does not consist in his becoming “a man,” but simply becoming “man.”
A couple of comments:KMC:![]()
His original words may have been clear enough in German. He contrasted two words, Mensch and Mann, which in English are often translated the same, man.I hope we will see a response from Bishop Bode that clarifies his words.
Mensch, by the way, is the form used in the Nicene Creed, in two places:
“For us men and for our salvation” of course is not restricted to male humans, but is open to all men and women, all humanity. In German, it is “Für uns Menschen und zu unserem Heil.”
The second instance, “and became man,” in German is rendered “und ist Mensch geworden.”
Significant to the controversy discussed in this thread, the Nicene Creed in English does not say that he “became a man.” In German, I gather that this alternative phrasing would be rendered with the other form, Mann, that is, “und ist Mann geworden.”
Now look at Bishop Bode’s words which have been called into question: “Mensch, nicht Mann geworden.” To a German audience, this would recall the words of the Nicene Creed, and make a subtle distinction between becoming “man” and becoming “a man.”
In my opinion, this distinction is perfectly reasonable in a synodal discussion about women. His point, I believe, was that Christ, though he is male, is first of all and more importantly human. The significance of the Incarnation with regard to our salvation does not consist in his becoming “a man,” but simply becoming “man.”
its kind of like asking “Was Lassie a dog or a Collie?” Its correct to say Lassie was a dog, and was a Collie, and it is incorrect to say that Lassie was a dog, but not a Collie.What is the difference between being a human being and being either a man or a woman?