Germany's neo-Nazi underground

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Since the Nazis were a far left wing organization I am curious as to how a neo-Nazi group could be considered far right-wing?
The Nazis promoted a return to basic right wing principles of clean living and high community standards. This is a reason for their electoral success. Hitler was a Catholic who entered into a Concordat with the Church. Abortion was banned; families were urged to have children. Hitler himself did not smoke and was never seen to be intoxicated. Homosexuality was frowned on; gay marriage would have been unthinkable. There was none of the antireligious, God is Dead, free sex and taking over of private property as went on under left wing socialists in the Soviet Union. It seems to me that the Nazis were right wing; but maybe this just demonstrates the problem with labels.
 
The Nazis promoted a return to basic right wing principles of clean living and high community standards. This is a reason for their electoral success. Hitler was a Catholic who entered into a Concordat with the Church. Abortion was banned; families were urged to have children. Hitler himself did not smoke and was never seen to be intoxicated. Homosexuality was frowned on; gay marriage would have been unthinkable. There was none of the antireligious, God is Dead, free sex and taking over of private property as went on under left wing socialists in the Soviet Union. It seems to me that the Nazis were right wing; but maybe this just demonstrates the problem with labels.
Hitler was born Catholic in Austria, but there is no evidence in his adult life that he was an adhering member of the Church. There is stronger evidence that he pursued a path of Teutonic mystic paganism.
 
The world did indeed progress socially during the nineteenth century on the issue of slavery. But progress is not inevitable. There is no reason to think the ageless institution of slavery would have fizzled out anyway, if the battle had not been fought. Indeed, without the battle, it is very easy to envision a very different kind of world.

That was my only point.
I agree with almost everything you wrote in this post. I would add, that although a southerner, I do not agree with the view that places the plight of the Irish in 19th century American on par with negro slaves. Chattel slavery was codified into law in the slave states, respected in all states through the full faith and credit clause. The only way out of chattel slavery was either through legal manumission or immigration to a non slave holding nation, whether Europe, Canada, or a friendly Indian nation. Even if a slave obtained manumission or freedom, in most of the slave states, it was exceedingly difficult to extend free status to full enfranchisement.

In Virginia, perhaps a fifth of the negro population was free. Nevertheless, their right to assemble, vote, transact business, stand for office, obtain public emoluments, serve on juries, marry, leave property by will, were all severely circumscribed by operation of law.

While the Irish labored against severe prejudice, so did negroes. The difference was that with enough money, or luck the Irish could (and did) establish enclaves against that prejudice and inroads into society at large. Even if a negro were fortunate enough to establish an estate of his own, he was then confronted with a legal framework that was aimed at him particularly. The slave holders understood that if free negroes were not restricted, they would use their economic progress to undermine slavery. There was a very poignant account written about ten years ago about black women in the 19th century who married white men. The price these families paid was basically to have their universe restricted to the houses and farms where they lived.

Would slavery have died out on its own? Yes, Mechanization and competing agricultural productivity from the northwest and midwest would have driven it toward economic extinction eventually, probably by 1900. I do not think that it would ever have lost its race-specific nature, however. Indians simply refused to be enslaved, and it is important not to view Mexico anachronistically. In the 19th Century, attempts to enslave Mexicans would have been punished by Mexico severely. At the time, Mexico had a far more developed infrastructure in the southwest than the US, and probably the finest cavalry next to the British Empire’s. Without northern assistance, Texas would have burned. Plus, the racial distinctions we perceive as important today were not necessarilly shared by earlier Americans. Southern Americans did not see the Mexicans as a hostile race (like some anti immigration advocates now) but, at least at the top of society, kindred spirits. Many southerners immigrated to Mexico after Appomattox.

Interesting ideas, sorry to go on at length. I guess the point is that under either the old definition of right and left, enshrining status by law is hallmark of the right. Under the new definition, it is anti individual rights and left. Lee and Jackson would have been surprised, to say the least, at being labelled leftists, even though the terms existed at the time in European political discourse. It seems to my thinking that the redefinition of right - left along individual rights lines is just the same as saying “less repressive/repressive.” As the French Revolution, and subsequent history shows, either aristocrats or democrats can be repressive.
 
Hitler was a Catholic who entered into a Concordat with the Church.
To my knowledge, Hitler did not really care for religion that much. I’ve heard there are old photos of him in a church during his original campaign, but this is was probably just pandering to the Christian voters
Abortion was banned;
Yes, but not if there would be something like hereditary disorders. I don’t think there’s a single person who would call Hitler pro-life
families were urged to have children.
I know nothing about that
Hitler himself did not smoke and was never seen to be intoxicated.
Fairly conservative lifestyle, but does not mean he was conservative or liberal
Homosexuality was frowned on; gay marriage would have been unthinkable.
DIfferent time period. Frowning in these was the cultural norm
There was none of the antireligious, God is Dead, free sex and taking over of private property as went on under left wing socialists in the Soviet Union.
It was fairly inappropriate to insult God publicly back then, so it’s no surprise. Sex was also a taboo thing to discuss. Germany was also anti-religious against the Jews
 
At the time, Mexico had a far more developed infrastructure in the southwest than the US, and probably the finest cavalry next to the British Empire’s. Without northern assistance, Texas would have burned.
I think this overstates it just a bit. Mexico invited Anglos from the U.S. into Texas precisely because Mexico was unable to adequately populate and protect it, and was utterly unable to deal with the Comanches and Kiowas who ruled vast sections of it and raided not only Mexican settlements in south Texas, but well into Mexico itself. The Texas war of independence from Mexico was a fairly close thing, but once “Anglos” started pouring into Texas, successful secession from Mexico was only a matter of time anyway, because the cultures were so different. And ultimate union with the U.S. was pretty much inevitable after that.
 
Hitler was born Catholic in Austria, but there is no evidence in his adult life that he was an adhering member of the Church. There is stronger evidence that he pursued a path of Teutonic mystic paganism.
Hitler believed in Hitler, and seemingly not much else. In private conversation, he ridiculed Himmler and others who were “true believers” in all that Nordic mythology. It appears he dabbled with astology a bit, but also persecuted astrologers.
 
I think this overstates it just a bit. Mexico invited Anglos from the U.S. into Texas precisely because Mexico was unable to adequately populate and protect it, and was utterly unable to deal with the Comanches and Kiowas who ruled vast sections of it and raided not only Mexican settlements in south Texas, but well into Mexico itself. The Texas war of independence from Mexico was a fairly close thing, but once “Anglos” started pouring into Texas, successful secession from Mexico was only a matter of time anyway, because the cultures were so different. And ultimate union with the U.S. was pretty much inevitable after that.
One minor correction (being from Texas and growing up with Texas History classes)… Spain invited Europeans (from all over Europe) to settle Texas before the Republic of Mexico. It wasn’t just English speakers or “Anglos”. For example, the first Spanish Governor of Texas was an Irishman from County Cork. Many of the Spanish colonization projects just continued but under the new Mexican government authority.

After the first Mexican Revolution, those who settled Texas for Spain became Mexican citizens. Almost everyone at the Alamo was a Mexican (of Native, European, or Central American descent) despite what recent revisionist histories have tried to claim.
 
One minor correction (being from Texas and growing up with Texas History classes)… Spain invited Europeans (from all over Europe) to settle Texas before the Republic of Mexico. It wasn’t just English speakers or “Anglos”. For example, the first Spanish Governor of Texas was an Irishman from County Cork. Many of the Spanish colonization projects just continued but under the new Mexican government authority.

After the first Mexican Revolution, those who settled Texas for Spain became Mexican citizens. Almost everyone at the Alamo was a Mexican (of Native, European, or Central American descent) despite what recent revisionist histories have tried to claim.
One does not argue with Texans about Texas. 🙂
 
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