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Skeptic92
Guest
If we look to the definition of God via philosophia taken by the Scholastics (and even the Church) personality is not listed as a property demonstrated to be formally possessed by the Divine Essence. This is a simple statement that the existence of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit (the Persons of the Blessed Trinity) is unavailable to natural reason unaided by Revelation; we can only come to a very confused, but certain, knowledge of God via philosophia and we do not possess the knowledge required to give a conclusion that God must subsist in one or more hypostasis.The typical arguments from cosmology, the first cause, and contingency are very convincing to me that God exists. It just makes sense to me that there cannot be an indefinite series of physical causes. There has to be something that explains its own existence, something non-physical.
What gives me some trouble, philosophically, is moving from the existence of an eternal, independent causal force to belief in a personal God. What does this mean, exactly? Does this refer to God’s will and his ability to Love? How are we to understand God as having an intellect and will, or being personal?
You can argue that God must be supremely intelligent (and intelligence supposes that there is something like intellect and will in God) thusly;
That which is in the effect must be found either virtually, formally, or eminently in the proper cause. And an effect of creation is the existence of intelligent agents. Therefore intelligence must be found either virtually, formally, or eminently in the proper cause. Virtually supposes that it lacks the perfect formally, and is therefore a mode of imperfection. Therefore intelligence cannot be found virtually in the proper cause of creation. Therefore intelligence is found either formally or eminently in the proper cause.
If intelligence were to be found formally in the proper cause, God, then there would be really distinct faculties of power and appetite regarding intellect and will. But if they were really distinct, then God would not be Simple which is known by faith and reason; therefore intelligence is not found formally in the Divine Essence. Therefore intelligence is found eminently in Deity, and it is this power of the divine essence that is known by the name of omniscience.
By eminently it means a perfection of a higher degree, and in this case the highest degree, then if it was possessed formally. I.e if I were to physically give you a £10 note, I would «formally» possess the property of having-a-£10-note to give you. Whilst if I could print genuine currency from the printing press I would «eminently» possess the property, as I could make or create the property to give.
Try not to get too far with Philosophy; attributing personality directly to the essence rather than the hypostasis/suppositum will reduce into the error of modalism.
Also a note for several posters here; be very, very, very careful about describing God as “a” person. Whilst the very font from which personality flows and is created by is perfectly orthodox, describing God as “a” anything runs into serious issues with Divine Simplicity as taught by the Church through her universal Magisterium and the Scholastic Schools of the Suarezians, Scotists, and Thomists. William Lane Craig’s Philosophical Theology is incompatible with the Catholic Faith.