God's Mercy and God's justice

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opusAquinas

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God could give graces to everyone which could have all accept Jesus.

Why does not God do this?

Why does God not give all efficient grace?

Is it because God’s justice must be satisfied?

If so, how many people must go to hell for God’s justice to be satisfied?
If it is not quantity is it quality? 🤷
 
Jesus to St. Faustina -

**“There are souls who despise My graces as well as all the proofs of My love. They do not wish to hear My call, but proceed into the abyss of hell. The loss of these souls plunges Me into deadly sorrow. God though I am, I cannot help such a soul because it scorns Me; having a free will, it can spurn Me or love Me. You, who are the dispenser of My mercy, tell all the world about My goodness, and thus you will comfort My Heart.” ** (Diary, 580)

"Write: I am Thrice Holy, and I detest the smallest sin. I cannot love a soul which is stained with sin; but when it repents, there is no limit to My generosity toward it. My mercy embraces and justifies it. With My mercy, I pursue sinners along all their paths, and My Heart rejoices when they return to Me. I forget the bitterness with which they fed My Heart and rejoice at their return. Tell sinners that no one shall escape My Hand; if they run away from My Merciful Heart, they will fall into My Just Hands." (Diary, 1728)

"Souls who spread the honor of My mercy I shield through their entire lives as a tender mother her infant, and at the hour of death I will not be a Judge for them, but the Merciful Savior. At that last hour, a soul has nothing with which to defend itself except My mercy. Happy is the soul that during its lifetime immersed itself in the Fountain of Mercy, because justice will have no hold on it." (Diary, 1075)

Divine Mercy Image - St. Faustina

http://s8.postimg.org/422f1cyxh/Christ_9.jpg

"These two rays issued forth from the very depths of My tender mercy when My agonized Heart was opened by a lance on the Cross." (Diary, 299)

"My Heart overflows with great mercy for souls, and especially for poor sinners. If only they could understand that I am the best of Fathers to them and that it is for them that the Blood and Water flowed from My Heart as from a fount overflowing with mercy." (Diary, 367)

"Tell sinful souls not to be afraid to approach Me; speak to them of My great mercy" (Diary, 1396).

**“I never reject a contrite heart.” **(Diary, 1485).

"He who refuses to pass through the door of My mercy must pass through the door of My justice…" (Diary, 1146)

I hope this has helped

God Bless you

Thank you for reading
Josh
 
opusAquinas said:
God could give graces to everyone which could have all accept Jesus.

Why does not God do this?

Why does God not give all efficient grace?

Is it because God’s justice must be satisfied?

If so, how many people must go to hell for God’s justice to be satisfied?
If it is not quantity is it quality? 🤷
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Genuine love requires the free action of giving oneself to another. Genuine love is not coerced its not forced and its not self centered. Read 1Corinthians 13. God could make so we all accepted Jesus but that’s not love.
 
God’s Mercy and God’s Justice are so intertwined as to be One.

Some seem to think that some will receive God’s Justice and others will receive God’s Mercy.

As in an either/or whereas it will be a both/and.

All will receive both God’s Justice and God’s Mercy.
 
I’ve read the replies so far and it does not answer my questions.

God gives some efficient grace and other sufficient grace. Why? Why not give all efficient grace?

God’s mercy is the efficient grace - God’s justice are those who receive His sufficient grace.
 
opusAquinas said:
I’ve read the replies so far and it does not answer my questions.

God gives some efficient grace and other sufficient grace. Why? Why not give all efficient grace?
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What do you mean be the term efficient grace? I could not find this term used in the Catechism.
God’s mercy is the efficient grace - God’s justice are those who receive His sufficient grace.
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Jesus said that he desires all to be saved. The Church teaches that we are each give sufficient grace to overcome any temptation we might encounter.
 
opusAquinas said:
God could give graces to everyone which could have all accept Jesus.

Why does not God do this?

Why does God not give all efficient grace?

Is it because God’s justice must be satisfied?

If so, how many people must go to hell for God’s justice to be satisfied?
If it is not quantity is it quality? 🤷
Click to expand...
Oh, golly, this topic has been beaten to death on this forum. 🙂 However, it is worth repeating, so as to avoid unnecessary anxieties.

No, God does not exclude people from grace in order to satisfy His justice. Rather, people exclude themselves from grace by sinning, and God respects that choice. If they persist, they will experience at their death (the negative aspects of) God’s justice.

Grace is “efficacious” inasmuch as it gives us the capacity to do something we were unable to do before—namely, to love God in a supernatural way. It is also efficacious in the sense that, if we cooperate with God, it is He who brings us home—it is not we who bring ourselves home by our own efforts.

However, it is not efficacious in the sense of forcing us to love God—God wishes to respect our freedom.

The short answer: God gives efficacious grace to all men, without exception. (God desires the salvation of all men and gives them all the possibility of being saved, according to both 1 Tim. 2:4 and , 22Gaudium et Spes.) However the efficacy of grace consists in making us capable of loving God, not in forcing us to love Him.

Why would God do this? Why not show forth all of His glory and hence make it impossible for us to refuse Him (as will be our condition in Heaven)? Because it gives us the possibliity of meriting something—to make hard decisions that will make us grow.
 
lmelahn said:
Oh, golly, this topic has been beaten to death on this forum. 🙂 However, it is worth repeating, so as to avoid unnecessary anxieties.

No, God does not exclude people from grace in order to satisfy His justice. Rather, people exclude themselves from grace by sinning, and God respects that choice. If they persist, they will experience at their death (the negative aspects of) God’s justice.

Grace is “efficacious” inasmuch as it gives us the capacity to do something we were unable to do before—namely, to love God in a supernatural way. It is also efficacious in the sense that, if we cooperate with God, it is He who brings us home—it is not we who bring ourselves home by our own efforts.

However, it is not efficacious in the sense of forcing us to love God—God wishes to respect our freedom.

The short answer: God gives efficacious grace to all men, without exception. (God desires the salvation of all men and gives them all the possibility of being saved, according to both 1 Tim. 2:4 and Gaudium et Spes, 22.) However the efficacy of grace consists in making us capable of loving God, not in forcing us to love Him.

Why would God do this? Why not show forth all of His glory and hence make it impossible for us to refuse Him (as will be our condition in Heaven)? Because it gives us the possibliity of meriting something—to make hard decisions that will make us grow.
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God does not give efficacious grace to all men. He gives efficacious grace to the elect and sufficient grace to nonelect.
 
Could be that since it is God’s Will that ALL be saved, that God came up with a PLAN that does just that, ultimately, even though it seems that there are those that are disturbed by God being better than they seem to think that God is capable of being.

Jesus even taught us to pray for God’s Will in what is referred to as the Lord’s Prayer or the Our Father, "…Thy Kingdom come, Thy Will be done…, could be Jesus was teaching us more than some seem to think in teaching us this prayer.

Another prayer that is relatively new the "O my Jesus prayer:

O my Jesus
forgive us our sins
save us from the fires of hell,
lead all souls to heaven,
especially those who have most need of Your Mercy.

This prayer is so simple and direct and it can be prayed by one or many for ALL.

I believe that it is a good idea at times to step back from some of the “prefab” prayers and ponder them, rather than just saying them.
 
Tom_Baum said:
Could be that since it is God’s Will that ALL be saved, that God came up with a PLAN that does just that, ultimately, even though it seems that there are those that are disturbed by God being better than they seem to think that God is capable of being.

Jesus even taught us to pray for God’s Will in what is referred to as the Lord’s Prayer or the Our Father, "…Thy Kingdom come, Thy Will be done…, could be Jesus was teaching us more than some seem to think in teaching us this prayer.

Another prayer that is relatively new the "O my Jesus prayer:

O my Jesus
forgive us our sins
save us from the fires of hell,
lead all souls to heaven,
especially those who have most need of Your Mercy.

This prayer is so simple and direct and it can be prayed by one or many for ALL.

I believe that it is a good idea at times to step back from some of the “prefab” prayers and ponder them, rather than just saying them.
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God has two wills. A consequential Will is one.
 
opusAquinas said:
God has two wills. A consequential Will is one.
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Does God know that God has two wills?

Is God divided against God?

Or is both of God’s wills compatible with each other?

If God has two wills, does it mean that both of God’s wills, will be done?
 
opusAquinas said:
God could give graces to everyone which could have all accept Jesus.

Why does not God do this?

Why does God not give all efficient grace?

Is it because God’s justice must be satisfied?

If so, how many people must go to hell for God’s justice to be satisfied?
If it is not quantity is it quality? 🤷
Click to expand...
Assuming that human universalism is false, then, those that are damned belong to an accidentally ordered series, not an essentially ordered series. If God must save those of the former series that would bring necessity to the freedom of God. Mary of Agreda has a very vivid description of how predestination works in the early chapters of the mystical city of God, mind you, they are private revelations, but they are in tune with what most scholastics held.
themostholyrosary.com/mystical-city-vol-i.pdf

No, I see no no reason why God’s justice must be satisfied, except only as it is prescribed by his decrees, not because he is compelled under some obligation to do so.
 
Tom_Baum said:
Does God know that God has two wills?

Is God divided against God?

Or is both of God’s wills compatible with each other?

If God has two wills, does it mean that both of God’s wills, will be done?
Click to expand...
You don’t know the Catholic doctrine I am referring to. May be google God’s consequential will or something.
 
DanAl said:
No, I see no no reason why God’s justice must be satisfied, except only as it is prescribed by his decrees, not because he is compelled under some obligation to do so.
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Can you elaborate?
 
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