Good Works, or Faith Alone?

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Works of the law, indeed. The works of hope and charity are completely different.
 
Loboto-Me said:
A myth? Why did M.Luther ADD the word “alone” to his translation? His own words:

You tell me what a great fuss the Papists are making because the word alone in not in the text of Paul…say right out to him: ‘Dr. Martin Luther will have it so,’…I will have it so, and I order it to be so, and my will is reason enough. I know very well that the word ‘alone’ is not in the Latin or the Greek text (Stoddard J. Rebuilding a Lost Faith. 1922, pp. 101-102; see also Luther M. Amic. Discussion, 1, 127
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Luther
“I know very well that in Romans 3 the word solum is not in the Greek or Latin text — the papists did not have to teach me that. It is fact that the letters s-o-l-a are not there. And these blockheads stare at them like cows at a new gate, while at the same time they do not recognize that it conveys the sense of the text – if the translation is to be clear and vigorous [klar und gewaltiglich], it belongs there. I wanted to speak German, not Latin or Greek, since it was German I had set about to speak in the translation.”
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“Alone” does not appear in any English translation that I know of, including the KJV.
bible.cc/romans/3-28.htm

The point: It was not necessary in English, as it was in German. If it were, then every English “Protestant” Bible would have “alone” in it, if it were the intention to change its meaning. It was not.

Jon
 
Loboto-Me said:
Triune, you are misconstruing some posts. The questions asked are asked out of surprise.
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No, my comments are made because an accusation about mistranslation is being made. I am demonstrating that:
  1. Especially in German, how Luther translated Rom. 3:28 is consistent with the meaning of the text. No English text translates it this way because the nuance of the English language allows the phrase to be translated in a way that the simplistic German of Luther’s day did not allow for. However, the meaning of “So halten wir nun dafür, daß der Mensch gerecht wird ohne des Gesetzes Werke, allein durch den Glauben.” is fundamentally the same as the meaning of the Greek text.
Faith apart from works = faith apart from anything else, hence, alone

“There’s a gallon of milk on the table, next to the cheese, bread, and eggs, can you hand it to me?”

“Can you hand me only the milk (alone)?”
  1. Luther was not the only one to interpret 3:28 as he did. Which is demonstrated by the quotes from the above theologians.
 
Also, no Protestant has answered my question yet. Why do you think Scripture teahces the Truth? You claim to accept no authority but Christ’s. But Christ died many years before the first New Testament book was written. He didn’t write the New Testament. Why do you believe the books are divinely inspired? What proof do you have?
 
Christ was true God and true man. Indeed, God established the Church.
 
"Mayita30:
Ok so NO cooperation on your part. Jesus alone saves you. Christ paid the price completely and all we must do is accept?? How do you accept Christ teachings?? By living it, right? By demonstrating it…
activeChristian said:
38 “Repent,” Peter said to them, "and be baptized, each of you, in the name of Jesus the Messiah for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.

Acts 2:38
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Corporation is by agreeing to repent and to go for Baptism. No cooperation, no salvation. 🙂
 
Marc_Anthony said:
Also, no Protestant has answered my question yet. Why do you think Scripture teahces the Truth? You claim to accept no authority but Christ’s. But Christ died many years before the first New Testament book was written. He didn’t write the New Testament. Why do you believe the books are divinely inspired? What proof do you have?
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Faith in God that He preserved His Word, as been shown on other threads the Scriptures were around long before the RCC tried to claim them
 
But the Bible says “works of the law” and the letter of James says “See how a person is justified by works and not by faith alone”.

Question: If James was not referring to Heavenly justification, what was the point of the passage? Since I don’t need works and I only need to be justified before God anyway it seems pointless to try and justify my actions before men.
 
Well, why do you believe anybody then? Why do you have faith that these books are inspired Scripture?
 
Marc_Anthony said:
But the Bible says “works of the law” and the letter of James says “See how a person is justified by works and not by faith alone”.

Question: If James was not referring to Heavenly justification, what was the point of the passage? Since I don’t need works and I only need to be justified before God anyway it seems pointless to try and justify my actions before men.
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James was talking about earthly justification before man. Which relates back to Galatians and the fruit of the spirit. Tell what possibly can we do to save ourselves when the greatest act has already been done? Is Christ death not enough for you.
 
Where is your proof that Christ didn’t establish an institution? I can give you biblical evidence that he did. How do you explain that he didn’t?
 
Why does being justifed before men matter? Jesus Christ is the only thing that matters, right? If we have faith in him we’re already saved so there’s no need to be justified before men.
 
Marc_Anthony said:
Where is your proof that Christ didn’t establish an institution? I can give you biblical evidence that he did. How do you explain that he didn’t?
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There is no Biblical evidence that He did. There is twisting Scripture to make it seem as such though
 
Marc_Anthony said:
Why does being justifed before men matter? Jesus Christ is the only thing that matters, right? If we have faith in him we’re already saved so there’s no need to be justified before men.
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You place importance on it, not me
 
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