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zz912
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For those that hold to the belief that when Jesus gives the power to forgive sins to the Apostles, and this authority expires with the death of the Apostles, something occurred to me I thought may be troublesome to this line of thinking.
With the Gospel of John, when it was being written by the Apostle John, he was the last, or one of the last depending on when you believe it was written, Apostle(s) left. Now the line in question is
20:23 Whose sins you forgive are forgiven them, and whose sins you retain are retained."
And just a few short verses later, he says:
20:30 Now Jesus did many other signs in the presence of (his) disciples that are not written in this book.
And then concludes the Gospel in the next chapter with this:
21:25 There are also many other things that Jesus did, but if these were to be described individually, I do not think the whole world would contain the books that would be written.
Twice he states that not everything that Jesus did would be able to be written down, but he takes time to specifically state that the Apostles were given this authority. Why? He is writing this Gospel down late in life, as the only Apostle left. Why would he bother inserting this in there if the authority was to end with his death? Wouldn’t the space for writing this down been better served to write down something that would be a permanent teaching of the Church? It is not like his authority was questioned. In fact, the verse:
*21:24 It is this disciple who testifies to these things and has written them, and we know that his testimony is true.
*
refutes this thinking because his authority is the basis for believing the Gospel.
So why write down something that will end in a few years with his death? The other Gospels covered this issue and the teaching if it were to only apply to the age of the Apostles. The only other reason I could come up with is to posit that he wrote unessential material in the Gospel. But this brings up many more issues and is heretical as well.
Your thoughts?
With the Gospel of John, when it was being written by the Apostle John, he was the last, or one of the last depending on when you believe it was written, Apostle(s) left. Now the line in question is
20:23 Whose sins you forgive are forgiven them, and whose sins you retain are retained."
And just a few short verses later, he says:
20:30 Now Jesus did many other signs in the presence of (his) disciples that are not written in this book.
And then concludes the Gospel in the next chapter with this:
21:25 There are also many other things that Jesus did, but if these were to be described individually, I do not think the whole world would contain the books that would be written.
Twice he states that not everything that Jesus did would be able to be written down, but he takes time to specifically state that the Apostles were given this authority. Why? He is writing this Gospel down late in life, as the only Apostle left. Why would he bother inserting this in there if the authority was to end with his death? Wouldn’t the space for writing this down been better served to write down something that would be a permanent teaching of the Church? It is not like his authority was questioned. In fact, the verse:
*21:24 It is this disciple who testifies to these things and has written them, and we know that his testimony is true.
*
refutes this thinking because his authority is the basis for believing the Gospel.
So why write down something that will end in a few years with his death? The other Gospels covered this issue and the teaching if it were to only apply to the age of the Apostles. The only other reason I could come up with is to posit that he wrote unessential material in the Gospel. But this brings up many more issues and is heretical as well.
Your thoughts?