S
StMarina303ad
Guest
**I know that the end of Rev. 12 is clear as day that we who are followers of Jesus have Mary as our Heavenly Mother. **
And I also know that Mary has appeared in the past and currently in person and through miracles to Orthodox Christians and to Catholics (and even to Non-Christians - to Orthodox Christians and Muslims in Egypt and to Orthodox Christians and Hindus in India). Most recently to Orthodox in Hawaii - miracle of the Myrrh Streaming Icons. www.orthodoxhawaii.org/icons.html
But has Mary ever appeared specifically to Protestants?
If she never has what does this mean?
Does this mean that Mary is the Mother of both Christians of the Historical Churches and also of Non-Christians, but is not the Mother of Protestants?
Does their bad theology and lack of Mysteries/Sacraments, specifically the lack of receiving Jesus not only into their hearts, but also into their stomachs by way of Holy Eucharist, prevent her from showing her love to them?
And I also know that Mary has appeared in the past and currently in person and through miracles to Orthodox Christians and to Catholics (and even to Non-Christians - to Orthodox Christians and Muslims in Egypt and to Orthodox Christians and Hindus in India). Most recently to Orthodox in Hawaii - miracle of the Myrrh Streaming Icons. www.orthodoxhawaii.org/icons.html
But has Mary ever appeared specifically to Protestants?
If she never has what does this mean?
Does this mean that Mary is the Mother of both Christians of the Historical Churches and also of Non-Christians, but is not the Mother of Protestants?
Does their bad theology and lack of Mysteries/Sacraments, specifically the lack of receiving Jesus not only into their hearts, but also into their stomachs by way of Holy Eucharist, prevent her from showing her love to them?