Actually, "my Lord and my God " is not the only expression of the kind. Earlier in the same chapter Jesus says to Mary Magdalene: “…] tell them I am going to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.” (John 20,17)…Well, the verse says that Thomas answered Jesus with the statement, ruling out #1. #2 simply is silly. Why would he have said that if he did not mean that Jesus was his God? He had asked for proof that he was risen, and he got it. I would probablly have said, “Oh snap, I was WRONG!” unless I thought he was God, then I would have said “Oh snap, God, I am sorry i was WRONG!” He said the latter.
Not that I agree Jesus ever claimed he is God.The OP asked if any other Jews claimed to be divine. It would appear that, after 60 posts, no one has come up with the name of another Jew who claimed to be divine.
Very interesting website. The quotes seem to say that the holy Rebbe nullifies himself so that God can totally shine through him. The way I understand this is that the Rebbe himself would say, “I am nothing, God is all.” He would never claim himself to be divine. But by letting God move through him, he connects his followers to God. This makes me think of something you once posted about God living in Moses or one of the prophets.Not that I agree Jesus ever claimed he is God.
But this comes close to others claiming divinity.
Tzadik The Rebbe is completely connected with his Hasidim, not like two separate things that connect, rather they become completely one. And the Rebbe is not an intermediary which separates rather he is one that connects. Therefore by a Hassid, he with the Rebbe with God are all one…Therefore one can not ask a question about an intermediary since this is the essence of God Himself, as He has clothed Himself in a human body.
I’ve said on a number of occasions here that the ‘New Testament’ is about as important as ‘The Lord of The Rings’ or ‘Harry Potter’ but literary criticism has its place even there.If you aren’t Christian why would you think there is any value or authority in Christian scriptures? Or that scriptures that Christians have understood to mean one thing should really mean something else?
Yes Shabtai ZviI know that there were quite a few before and after Jesus who claimed to be the Messiah. But did any Jew, besides Jesus, ever claim to be divine, or a god, or the one God Himself? If so, when, who was he, and what happened to him?
This is the Ancient of Days speaking; God. Where does it say that he is Jesus? Doesnt the “one like a Son of Man” (whom some believe to be the saints or the Church) approach the Ancient of Days to receive power?Isaiah 43:13
Yes, and from** ancient days I am he**.
No one can deliver out of my hand.
When I act, who can reverse it?"
Seems to be a claim to divinity. Straight from the mouth of Jesus Himself.John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, "before Abraham was born, I am!"
As for another Jewish person who accepted godhood,
Acts 12:21-23 (New International Version)
I don’t think Herod intended to claim to be a god, but when the crowd started calling him as such he didn’t deny it; he should have deflected their praise to God.21On the appointed day Herod, wearing his royal robes, sat on his throne and delivered a public address to the people. 22They shouted, “This is the voice of a god, not of a man.” 23Immediately, because Herod did not give praise to God, an angel of the Lord struck him down, and he was eaten by worms and died.
Similar words, totally different context and meaning. Thomas addresses Jesus as Lord and God. Jesus tells Mary that he is going to God.Actually, "my Lord and my God " is not the only expression of the kind. Earlier in the same chapter Jesus says to Mary Magdalene: “…] tell them I am going to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.” (John 20,17)…
Yes, but he says “to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God”.Similar words, totally different context and meaning. Thomas addresses Jesus as Lord and God. Jesus tells Mary that he is going to God.
True. Why did he not correct Thomas or clarify the statement if he did not mean it to show him as God?Yes, but he says “to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God”.
John 20:28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My LORD and my God…True. Why did he not correct Thomas or clarify the statement if he did not mean it to show him as God?
Because Jesus, all the apostles, the majority of his disciples, and the ones who first accepted his teachings were Jews, it was inevitable that those who followed him as messiah would interpret the prophecies in the Jewish scriptures to refer to Jesus. So the somewhat later Jewish and gentile followers of Jesus continued to interpret them in that way. And so we do today.I’ve said on a number of occasions here that the ‘New Testament’ is about as important as ‘The Lord of The Rings’ or ‘Harry Potter’ but literary criticism has its place even there.
Personally, I’m more interested in the historical/social consequences of what Christians believe (rather than how it is that they believe what they believe) but Christians keep attempting to interpret Jewish scriptures (and Jews!) to fit into their worldview so some interest in the mechanics of that process, including their interpretations of Jewish life and culture 2000 years ago seems inescapable.
After the first detailed product re-launch in recorded history as Paul turned a failure in the Jewish market into a success in the Gentile market by inventing an ‘illness’ (an over-arching/all-encompassing ‘need’ for metaphysical ‘salvation’) and announcing his version of Jesus to be the only ‘cure’.Because Jesus, all the apostles, the majority of his disciples, and the ones who first accepted his teachings were Jews, it was inevitable that those who followed him as messiah would interpret the prophecies in the Jewish scriptures to refer to Jesus. So the somewhat later Jewish and gentile followers of Jesus continued to interpret them in that way. And so we do today.
So when Judaism failed among Jews and they lost their First Temple, did they relaunch the Second Temple because they invented some illness as an an over-arching/all-encompassing ‘need’ for metaphysical ‘salvation’?After the first detailed product re-launch in recorded history as Paul turned a failure in the Jewish market into a success in the Gentile market by inventing an ‘illness’ (an over-arching/all-encompassing ‘need’ for metaphysical ‘salvation’) and announcing his version of Jesus to be the only ‘cure’.
I’m afraid his ability to reach ‘critical mass’ in logical fallacies per line defeated my ability to be bothered to read anything he writes, ages ago.Judaism has not failed. You failed to understand Judaism.
I understand it. When is the last time I saw a Jew here talk about the beauty of God or why it is fulfilling to observe Torah? All I see is snarky snotty comments about Jesus, apparently since many of you have run out of Temples of your own to tear down.Judaism has not failed. You failed to understand Judaism.