C
Christ_s_friend
Guest
Someone please answer my question post #18
You did not ask a question in post 18, you made a statement. What is your question?Someone please answer my question post #18
BTW:Christ’s "friend":Someone please answer my question post #18
copland said:1) Why are the 7 apocrypha books in the Catholic Canon?
Apocrapha is actually not the proper name to call them if you are a Catholic. Deuterocanonical is much more appropiate.
Yes. As Jerome was not a RC so he called them Apocrypha.
By the waaaay: what does “Deuterocanonical” mean?? Does this mean that God talked less in the Apocrypha than in the canonical Books???
copland:
The authors of the Apocrypha say that they are not inspired. But RC insist that they are inspired, but less inspired than the canonicals. The RC would have a problem to convince the authors of the Apocrypha that their books are Scripture.The reason why they are in the Catholic Bible is beacuse they are inspired and deserve to be in there.
copland:
You mean that they have always been in the Septuagint. As the Apostles used the Septuagint ( because it was the only Greek translation available ), and as there are people who worship something called “tradition”, and as they found it in the Septuagint, so they considered it Scripture!!What an authority to decide which books belong in the Bible! If there are no other translations available other than RC translations, and if I use today a RC translation, does this mean that I accept all the books that it contains???They have always been universially accepted as Sacred Scripture by Christians for the last 2000 years.
You are zero in Hebrew, and you are just quoting what others are saying. Do you know what is the Hebrew word translated as “like a lion” or “they have pierced” ???The Early Christian Jews were proving that Jesus was the Messiah by using the Scriptures, and many of the Pharisees were so hardened that they only excepted their own Hebrew Scriptures as authoritative scripture, and they even changed some of the actual Scriptures such as Psalm 22, "they have pierced my hands and my feet’ to “like a lion are my hands and my feet.”
Keep in mind that Jesus Christ quoted the Scripture AS SCRIPTURE BEFORE there was this Palestinian canon you are dreaming of! It seems that you don’t know that God has the sole Authority over His Word!! Only God can decide what is the Canon!Keep in mind, the Alexandrian canon is pre-Christian while the Palestinian canon is post-Christian, a Pharisees revision/corruption.
copland said:4) When was the Catholic Canon finalized, by whom/in which council? Were there a few Councils before a final Canon was adopted?
It was finalized at the Council of Trent. But it was also defined at the Council of Hippo in 393AD and at the Council of Carthage sometime around 400AD.
The reason why they excluded the Deuters is because it was just too Catholic for them.
Yes, they were too pagan for them. And they were too human, without any divine element. So they were very “Catholic”
copland:
The Virgin Mary, Peter and all the Apostles were Jews. And they didn’t reject Jesus. All of them were using the Scripture of Palestine. And Jesus didn’t blame them for not accepting some pagan books.The reason why the reformers say they excluded the deuters is because the Jews excluded them. I wonder why they did not go all the way and reject Jesus too, the Jews did that!
copland:
Yes, indeed, the link that I gave is very interesting. :tiphat:Hopefully the sites that our brothers and sisters gave are good enough, I have not looked at them, but if you need furthur info just say. I hoppe this helps!
Oh…King James must be God.Only God can decide what is the Canon! :tiphat:
The king James doesn’t have much to do with all this.Witness,
How did King James come up with the texts to include in his Bible?
And on what authority?
Methinks there is a little wavering here…are you a sola scriptura type? if so–what about those references I cited? Are they part of scripture or not? If they are, what say you concerning their “Apocryphal” allusions?The king James doesn’t have much to do with all this.
Why talk about that king? Our King Is Jesus.
Why talk about one translation? Are there not other good translations?
As for the authority of the Scripture, don’t you know that God has the sole authority?
By the way: Did you have the courage to open the link I gave here and to follow the topic there?
Ah, poor RC… Your theologians have deceived you with their vanities. :nope:
:tiphat:
The translation you have is incomplete and worded to fit your desired translation,mans translation not God’s.The king James doesn’t have much to do with all this.
Why talk about that king? Our King Is Jesus.
Why talk about one translation? Are there not other good translations?
As for the authority of the Scripture, don’t you know that God has the sole authority?
By the way: Did you have the courage to open the link I gave here and to follow the topic there?
Ah, poor RC… Your theologians have deceived you with their vanities. :nope:
:tiphat:
Since the Jewish temple was destroyed in 70 A.D. there have been no Jewish High Priests since that time.Try this:
cin.org/users/james/files/deuteros.htm
Also note- the Jewish cannon was not determined until 100AD- AFTER Christ, therefore not binding on us. It was because of the threat of Christianity- for those Jews whp did not believe he was Lord- that influenced much of which books were kept and thrown.
hahahaha! In fact, in the Apocrypha, there are references to OT texts that are used in the NT . And the uninspired writers of the Apocrypha have given so many wrong interpretations to those OT texts that I don’t wonder why the RC are so misled.If there is clear New Testament reference to scripture only found in so called “Apocryphal” texts, would the protesters be assuaged?
As I was never a protestant, I am convinced that Paul has also quoted pagan authors. If I was a deceived RC, I would add those authors’ writings to the Bible too.As a former protestant, I am particularly convinced by:
§ Matt. 22:25; Mark 12:20; Luke 20:29 - Gospel writers refer to the canonicity of Tobit 3:8 and 7:11 regarding the seven brothers.
§ Rom. 9:21 - usage of the potter and the clay, making two kinds of vessels follows Wisdom 15:7.
§ Eph. 6:14 - Paul describing the breastplate of righteousness is the same as Wis. 5:18. See also Isaiah 59:17 and 1Thess. 5:8.
§ Eph. 6:13-17 - in fact, the whole discussion of armor, helmet, breastplate, sword, shield follows Wis. 5:17-20.
§ Heb 11:35 - Paul teaches about the martyrdom of the mother and her sons described in 2 Macc. 6:18, 7:1-42.
§ Rev. 8:3-4 - prayers of the saints presented to God by the hand of an angel follows Tobit 12:12,15.
§ Rev. 11:19 - the vision of the ark of the covenant (Mary) in a cloud of glory was prophesied in 2 Macc. 2:7. [actually, 2:5-8]
Peace!
Your maniacal laughing is…weird.hahahaha!
As I was never a protestant, I am convinced that Paul has also quoted pagan authors. If I was a deceived RC, I would add those authors’ writings to the Bible too.
I will not refute the claims concerning each of these passages. I know that RC need the basics yet, so I don’t need to waste my time. Let me just give you some OT references for one of those passages which is Romans 9: To understand this passage, go to passages like Jeremiah 18:6, Isaiah 45:9, Proverbs 16:4. All these are Scripture, unlike those Apocrypha books.
Wake up, dear RCs :tiphat:
What are you talking about here? Oh…nevermind…I’m not really interested.hahahaha! In fact, in the Apocrypha, there are references to OT texts that are used in the NT . And the uninspired writers of the Apocrypha have given so many wrong interpretations to those OT texts that I don’t wonder why the RC are so misled.
Wake up, dear RCs :tiphat: