S
Sherlock
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Then you won’t have any problems with any teachings of the Catholic Church, because they don’t contradict the Bible.I won’t beleive anything the Church teaches that contradicts the Bible.
Herry
Then you won’t have any problems with any teachings of the Catholic Church, because they don’t contradict the Bible.I won’t beleive anything the Church teaches that contradicts the Bible.
Herry
Enoch, Moses, and Elijah were specifically mentioned as being taken up into heaven.Matt. 22
Matt 17
I am not sure your understand the state of the dead.
As are all who die in Christ…Enoch, Moses, and Elijah were specifically mentioned as being taken up into heaven.
I really have learned alot in this forum. Its great! Im sorry I voiced my opinion. After all, this is apologetics forumGreat, another Protestant here to teach us the errors of our ways.
Herry, sorry to disagree with you, but I don’t think you’re here to learn anything, as you stated in your first post. I think you’re just here to try and convince us we’re wrong and throw confusion into our lives.
Just an FYI-all these arguements you’re throwing at us, we’ve heard before. As a former Protestant, I know them all too well. I’m not going back to being a Protestant for anything. It would be alike “a dog returning to its vomit”.
I love Our Lord, I love Our Mother, and I love the Church and will remain faithful to it for the rest of my life, and I will raise my children to do the same.
Scout :tiphat:
That’s great–we can all learn from each other.I really have learned alot in this forum. Its great! Im sorry I voiced my opinion. After all, this is apologetics forum![]()
I can’t help wondering why you assume this is the reason. Where in the world did you get this idea? Where does Catholic theology say this? I suspect this is why you don’t understand what we’re trying to tell you. You’re making assumptions that have no basis in fact.I am afraid still no one has answered my original question. The only reason we should pray to Mary is if she loves us more than Christ, or Christ needs to outsource His redemptoral work.
Well, if that’s the case, Herry, you should never ask anyone to pray for you. Ever. After all, you shouldn’t ask someone else to be a mediator between you and God.And come on now. Why would I be destroying your faith and confusing you, if the only alternative I am advocating puts greater emphasis on Christ? And singles Him alone out as our only mediator. Is this such a heresy? Scripture says “There is one God, and one mediator between God and man, the Man Christ Jesus” 1 Tim 2:5. Not two, not 3, not as many saints as go to heaven, but only one.
–Herry
Enoch and Elijah yes Moses noEnoch, Moses, and Elijah were specifically mentioned as being taken up into heaven.
He died and was burried yet he appeared with Elijah.Deuteronomy
5 So there, in the land of Moab, Moses, the servant of the LORD, died as the LORD had said; 6 and he was buried in the ravine opposite Beth-peor in the land of Moab
Asking the Saints to pray for us in no way interferes with the mediatorship of Christ, just like you asking your friends and family members to pray for you does not interfere with 1 Timothy 2:5. It is not requried, all prayers can be directly made to Jesus, but asking for someone else to pray for and with you doesn’t hurt.And singles Him alone out as our only mediator. Is this such a heresy? Scripture says “There is one God, and one mediator between God and man, the Man Christ Jesus” 1 Tim 2:5. Not two, not 3, not as many saints as go to heaven, but only one.
Jesus but Mary said yes to God and she was the vessel that the word was formed and became flesh, are you saying thats’ no big deal ?Hi Folks,
First of all, this is an apologetics forum where theological differences are dicsussed. At times we may disagree sharply, but let’s all be as friends, friends can disagree.
Q: Who came into the world to save sinners? Jesus or Mary?
A: Jesus
Mary always directs us to Her Son Jesus, “like Cana, do whatever He tells you”.Q: Who is a sinners best friend? Jesus or Mary?
A: Jesus
Who did the sinners goto to get Jesus to manifest Himself before His time, (Mary- sinless) why didn’t the Apostles (sinners) goto Jesus ?Q: How many examples are there in scripture of sinners, who thinking they could obtain grace more easily, went to Mary first before, or along with Jesus?
A: none
Yes your right that is in the scriptures, and the point.Q: Did the reprentant thief being crucified with Jesus do better to address himself to Jesus, or should he have gone first to Mary, who was at his feet?
A: The thief went directly to Jesus.
NO !If then Jesus loves sinners infinitly more than Mary, never sent a sinner away (even a unclean woman who could have been punished for touching a clean person), and never sent them through an intermediary but welcomed them, when, after ascending to the throne of God to be our mediator, did Jesus lose any of His love, interest, or ability to give us all salvation,
NO !]Does Jesus need help hearing all our prayers?
All Mary desires is to point us to Her Son.Does Mary love us more than Christ?
The ‘Textus Receptus’ of Lucian’s school of Antioch, translated word for word before the Vulgate is the Protestant Bible. Protestants did not translate thier Bible form a Catholic Bible. “The Bibles produced by the Syrian scribes, presented the text of the school of Antioch, and this text became the form that displaced all others in the eastern Churches, and is indeed the textus receptus from which our authorized version is translated: this of course only applies to the New Testament” Syriac Church and Fathers p. 49This does not in any way apply to Christ’s Church. You can’t prove that it does, you only want it to say that it does. Hardly convincing.
Peter is saying that someday, many will follow wrong ways because they trust who is teaching them. That is all Im saying. This can apply to any Church Protestant or Catholic. Peter seems to be specifically warning us of the teachers who have us convinced they cannot be wrong.
No doubt copies of portions of the NT and the OT were circulated throughout the known world, but they hardly made up any sort of “Protestant Bible.” There was no such a thing until the 16th century, and they were a decimation of the Bible confirmed by the Church in the 4th century. If this De Lacy is anything like your other sources of information about the Church, I think I’ll pass. I read plenty of bogus histories when I was in the Assemblies of God. Been there, done that, got the tee shirt.![]()
Truly major differences between the KJV and modern translations of the New Testament are primarily due to the inaccuracy of the so-called *Textus Receptus *TR], the Greek text upon which the KJV’s New Testament was based. According to Bruce Metzger (*The Text of the New Testament: Its Transmission, Corruption, and Restoration, Third Edition, *Oxford University Press, 1992, pages 95-118), **the *TR ***primarily resulted from the work of a Dutch Roman Catholic priest and Greek scholar by the name of Desiderius Erasmus, who published his first Greek New Testament text in 1516. The first edition of Erasmus’ text was hastily and haphazardly prepared over the extremely short period of only five months. (ibid., page 106) That edition was based mostly upon two inferior twelfth century Greek manuscripts, which were the only manuscripts available to Erasmus “on the spur of the moment” (ibid., page 99).The ‘Textus Receptus’ of Lucian’s school of Antioch, translated word for word before the Vulgate is the Protestant Bible. Protestants did not translate thier Bible form a Catholic Bible. “The Bibles produced by the Syrian scribes, presented the text of the school of Antioch, and this text became the form that displaced all others in the eastern Churches, and is indeed the textus receptus from which our authorized version is translated: this of course only applies to the New Testament” Syriac Church and Fathers p. 49
Anyway, the Protestants do not owe the Latin Church for thier Bible. What are these ‘other bogus sources’ you are talking about? So far, I have only used the writings of Cardianals, and the Bible.
In Christ,
–Herry
Actually, your question has been answered several times.I am afraid still no one has answered my original question.
Mm. Quite so. Herry’s question has been answered many times.Actually, your question has been answered several times.
– Mark L. Chance.
Herry, you seem to think that when the Bible says Christ is our one mediator, it is a mediatorship of exclusiveness.Why would I be destroying your faith and confusing you, if the only alternative I am advocating puts greater emphasis on Christ? And singles Him alone out as our only mediator. Is this such a heresy? Scripture says “There is one God, and one mediator between God and man, the Man Christ Jesus” 1 Tim 2:5. Not two, not 3, not as many saints as go to heaven, but only one.
–Herry
How you get from the school of Lucian to the textus receptus is “bogus” as mentioned by Della above. This is a classic modern day case described in Matthew 24: 11. I will pray for you.The ‘Textus Receptus’ of Lucian’s school of Antioch, translated word for word before the Vulgate is the Protestant Bible. Protestants did not translate thier Bible form a Catholic Bible. “The Bibles produced by the Syrian scribes, presented the text of the school of Antioch, and this text became the form that displaced all others in the eastern Churches, and is indeed the textus receptus from which our authorized version is translated: this of course only applies to the New Testament” Syriac Church and Fathers p. 49
Anyway, the Protestants do not owe the Latin Church for thier Bible. What are these ‘other bogus sources’ you are talking about? So far, I have only used the writings of Cardianals, and the Bible.
In Christ,
–Herry
My understanding is that when people used the word “women” in those days they used it as a term of great respect, unlike today. And you can be sure that Jesus said it with the highest respect!… Jesus the Son of God said to you (His own Mother) “Woman, What have I to do with thee”, would you ever ask anything of him again? He called His own mother “Woman”! The Apostles understood it and said
In Christ,
-Herry
No it isn’t, it was because Jesus didn’t want to reveal His Glory at that time, this reveals Her Motherly role, and your summing up is in opposition to this.Mark :10:19 Thou knowest the commandments: Do not commit adultery, do not kill, do not steal, bear not false witness, do no fraud, honour thy father and mother. drbo.org/cgi-bin/d?b=drb&bk=50&ch=2&l=11&f=s#xThis is the first Miracle, and the first rebuke of Mary. If you were Mary, and Jesus the Son of God said to you (His own Mother) “Woman, What have I to do with thee”, would you ever ask anything of him again? He called His own mother “Woman”! Why didn’t Jesus just say ‘Yes Mother I will do as you ask’? It is because He wanted to banish the idea of any of His followers ever going to anyone but He himself for intercession.
Where do you get this from ?Mary did however say, “whatsoever He saith unto you, do it”. This means Mary wants us to do as Jesus said “Come unto ME, all who are heavy laden and burdened (with sins, etc) and I will give you rest” and “…If any man thirst, let him come unto ME, and drink” John 7:37
True, and it’s been pointed out to you that Mary said, “do as He tells you”------ Mary didn’t say do as I tell you.The Apostles understood it and said “…there is none other name given among men whereby we must be saved” Acts 4:12 This verse tells me that if I never knew another name besides ‘Jesus’, I would find the fullness of salvation.
The very term “textus receptus” is nothing more than a publishers blurb in the forward of the Second edition of another version of the Greek New Testament published in 1633. Since it was published 13 years AFTER the KJV was published it is hard to see how it is the basis of the Prostestant Bible. In reality it was another rather poor , haphazard, translation by the Dutch Elzivir brothers of the aforementioned Greek New Testament.Truly major differences between the KJV and modern translations of the New Testament are primarily due to the inaccuracy of the so-called *Textus Receptus *TR], the Greek text upon which the KJV’s New Testament was based. According to Bruce Metzger (*The Text of the New Testament: Its Transmission, Corruption, and Restoration, Third Edition, *Oxford University Press, 1992, pages 95-118), **the *TR ***primarily resulted from the work of a Dutch Roman Catholic priest and Greek scholar by the name of Desiderius Erasmus, who published his first Greek New Testament text in 1516. The first edition of Erasmus’ text was hastily and haphazardly prepared over the extremely short period of only five months. (ibid., page 106) That edition was based mostly upon two inferior twelfth century Greek manuscripts, which were the only manuscripts available to Erasmus “on the spur of the moment” (ibid., page 99).
bibletexts.com/kjv-tr.htm
And can you tell me/us what prayers we say to Mary that you have a problem with ?I am afraid still no one has answered my original question. The only reason we should pray to Mary is if she loves us more than Christ, or Christ needs to outsource His redemptoral work.
–Herry