holy father?

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Fr. Mitch Pacwa’s take on this is that the heads of the various rabbinic schools were called “father” but they were teaching with great vanity and pride – as you note – and not teaching to serve.

Since Jesus calls people “father” about 18 times in the Gospels, he clearly can’t mean this injunction in a literalistic way. He must mean that calling peoplel “father” when they are not teaching what comes from THE “Father” is to misplace the title. He is totally OK with “fathers in faith” – namely, father Abraham.
Good point, Mercy! 👍
 
Here is my stock answer to the statement about calling no man “Father, Teacher, or Master.”

In Jesus time there were a number of Jewish sects. These were the Pharisees, Saducees, Essenes, and Zealots

These sects had houses of teaching within them .

Within the Pharisees there were two famous rival houses.
They were the House of Shammai(Beit Shammai) and the House of Hillel (founder of the Beit Hillel school). The individuals that these houses were named after were considered the “father” of the house.

Jesus warns the apostles not to be fathers to “separate” houses for there is but one house of the Lord. Jesus also says to call no man “teacher” or “master.”

–side note:
Paul was taught by Gamaliel[Acts22:3], a pharisee from the house of Hillel. Gamaliel was, in fact, the grandson of Hillel. Gamaliel was known as an elder and had the title of “Rabban” which means “Our Master.” This title explains why Jesus also said call no one “master”, for there is but one house and one master of all.

Again, Jesus wanted unity see John 17], and does not want the apostles to set up separate houses or schools of thought. The corollary of this is clearly expressed in Paul’s complaint in 1 Cor 1:10-15 where some are arguing their superiority by being baptized by, and belonging to, Paul vs. Apollos, or Cephas, etc. Paul goes on elsewhere to further warn against factions and divisions, and stresses the importance of one mind and unity of doctrine.

The meaning of “call no man father, teacher, or master” concerns unity and consistency of doctrine and has nothing to do with the commonly used references that are seen elsewhere in scripture or everyday use.
 
Right. Those capital and lower case "h"s are in the Greek text. :whacky:
I was going to say the same thing. Does anyone think Jesus was sitting there dictating this to someone and telling them “that’s father with a big ‘F.’”

😛
 
Here is my stock answer to the statement about calling no man “Father, Teacher, or Master.”

In Jesus time there were a number of Jewish sects. These were the Pharisees, Saducees, Essenes, and Zealots

These sects had houses of teaching within them .

Within the Pharisees there were two famous rival houses.
They were the House of Shammai(Beit Shammai) and the House of Hillel (founder of the Beit Hillel school). The individuals that these houses were named after were considered the “father” of the house.

Jesus warns the apostles not to be fathers to “separate” houses for there is but one house of the Lord. Jesus also says to call no man “teacher” or “master.”

–side note:
Paul was taught by Gamaliel[Acts22:3], a pharisee from the house of Hillel. Gamaliel was, in fact, the grandson of Hillel. Gamaliel was known as an elder and had the title of “Rabban” which means “Our Master.” This title explains why Jesus also said call no one “master”, for there is but one house and one master of all.

Again, Jesus wanted unity see John 17], and does not want the apostles to set up separate houses or schools of thought. The corollary of this is clearly expressed in Paul’s complaint in 1 Cor 1:10-15 where some are arguing their superiority by being baptized by, and belonging to, Paul vs. Apollos, or Cephas, etc. Paul goes on elsewhere to further warn against factions and divisions, and stresses the importance of one mind and unity of doctrine.

The meaning of “call no man father, teacher, or master” concerns unity and consistency of doctrine and has nothing to do with the commonly used references that are seen elsewhere in scripture or everyday use.
This is a very fine post (not that you need MY opinion!).
 
Mercygate,

Thanks for your kind words…I have admired your work on the forums and have gained much from you.
 
Here is a good test for you go to one of the bible word search sites and see how many times someone addresses someone else with the title (capital F) father??? Then check and see who it is they are addressing this title to…Then do the same with rabbi and teacher…
Then read Matthew 23:9 where Jesus expressly forbids calling any man father as a religious title…

Then next time you see Father O’malley I’d like you to recall Jesus’ words.
Wow. Anti-Catholic and anti-Irish prejudice all rolled into one package. That’s ugly.

But you have concerns about calling someone “Father”. Here’s what the Bible says about:

Calling Priests Father

From a parable of Jesus

"There was a rich man who was dressed in purple and fine linen and lived in luxury every day. At his gate was laid a beggar named Lazarus, covered with sores and longing to eat what fell from the rich man’s table. Even the dogs came and licked his sores. The time came when the beggar died and the angels carried him to Abraham’s side. The rich man also died and was buried. In hell, where he was in torment, he looked up and saw Abraham far away, with Lazarus by his side. So he called to him, ’ Father Abraham, have pity on me and send Lazarus to dip the tip of his finger in water and cool my tongue, because I am in agony in this fire.’ "But Abraham replied, ‘Son, remember that in your lifetime you received your good things, while Lazarus received bad things, but now he is comforted here and you are in agony. And besides all this, between us and you a great chasm has been fixed, so that those who want to go from here to you cannot, nor can anyone cross over from there to us.’ "He answered, ‘Then I beg you, father, send Lazarus to my father’s house, for I have five brothers. Let him warn them, so that they will not also come to this place of torment.’ “Abraham replied, ‘They have Moses and the Prophets; let them listen to them.’ ‘No, father Abraham,’ he said, ‘but if someone from the dead goes to them, they will repent.’ He said to him, ‘If they do not listen to Moses and the Prophets, they will not be convinced even if someone rises from the dead.’” (Luke 16:19-31)

Did Jesus contradict His own teaching against calling someone “father” by using that very phrase in His own parable? Or have you misunderstood what our Lord meant when he said, “Call no man your father.”

From the teaching of Paul
“I do not write this to make you ashamed, but to admonish you as my beloved children. For though you have countless guides in Christ, you do not have many fathers. For I became your father in Christ Jesus through the gospel” (1 Cor. 4:14–15).

“I appeal to you for my child, Onesimus, whose father I have become in my imprisonment” (Philemon 10)

“To Timothy, my true child in the faith: grace, mercy, and peace from God the Father and Christ Jesus our Lord” (1 Timothy 1:2)

“To Titus, my true child in a common faith: grace and peace from God the Father and Christ Jesus our Savior” (Titus 1:4)

"Therefore, the promise comes by faith, so that it may be by grace and may be guaranteed to all Abraham’s offspring—not only to those who are of the law but also to those who are of the faith of Abraham. He is the father of us all. (Romans 4:16)

I guess Paul didn’t get the memo.

From a Letter of John
“No greater joy can I have than this, to hear that my children follow the truth” (3 John 4)

Sounds like Paul and John considered themselves spiritual fathers to all these disciples, doesn’t it? And this is from the Word of God inspired by the Holy Spirit, is it not?

Note to Guardian1: The next time you see a post from Myfavoritmartin, ignore it. 👍
 
Note to Guardian1: The next time you see a post from Myfavoritmartin, ignore it. 👍
i may be a truck driving red headed stepchild, but i managed to pick up on that pretty quickly;)

thanks to everyone who replied:thumbsup:
 
i am assuming you are a protestant ( i am as well), and i know exactly what you are talking about. i am researching catholicism as possible faith to follow, as i did previously with islam. i do appreciate your concern, but as i have seen in some of your posts, you seem to be a vindictive person who is here to cause problems, not to learn. and therefore, i won’t dignify any of your posts with a reply. have a nice day
You’ve judged me wrong! I am not vindictive… Your loss!
 
i’m sorry if this has been brought up before. being raised protestant, i was always taught to never call a man ‘father’ and to never call another man ‘reverend’ or ‘holy’. after doing some research, i understand why catholics call priests father and don’t have a problem with it. i am however uneasy about refering to the Pope as “His Holiness” or the “Holy Father”. i do believe that he should have some kind of title that commands respect and endearment. i also know for a fact, even though i know almost nothing about Pope Benedict 16, that he is certainly a better christian and more pius than i am. i guess my problem is that even though he is a great christian and leader of the catholic faith, he is still a man and as such is prone to sin, thereby making him not so holy. can anyone explain why he is refered to as “Holy Father” or “His Holiness”? thanks
In doing so, we make a prayer that God will preserve him in all holiness, to the benefit of us all.
 
You accept the “Father” part of “Holy Father” when it refers to the pope, but not the “holy” part. But I think that both are reasonable for the same reason. The Pope is my father because he is the spiritual head of my spiritual family, and it is his duty or office to lead that family.

Likewise, the Pope is the Holy father because that office of spiritual family leadership is holy, sacred, set aside to the service of God.

The adjective “holy” is not about his personal holiness (though thankfully we have been blessed with personally holy popes for generations now); it is about the holiness of his being elected to lead the people to God.

“His Holiness” is more of the same: He holds the Keys to the Kingdom of Heaven; he has the power to bind and loose on earth which power binds and looses the same in heaven; upon the Pope Jesus builds His Church. This office is holy.

“His Holiness” fits with historical customs regarding titles. A duke or earl is, I guess, “His Grace”. Though the world uses these titles less now, as aristocracy gives way to democracy, long ago the Christian world agreed upon this courtesy title for the Pope, and so we still use it today.
This is a good point. Holy things, or persons are those consecrated and set apart. It does not mean they are necessarily perfect. For example:

1 Cor 7:13-14
14 For the unbelieving husband is consecrated through his wife, and the unbelieving wife is consecrated through her husband. Otherwise, your children would be unclean, but as it is they are holy."

Everyone knows that children are not necessarily more holy just because one of their parents is a Christian! 👍
 
holy and Holy are two wholly different things…

One being a title the other a description…
Christ forbade use in titles…
i am assuming you are a protestant ( i am as well), and i know exactly what you are talking about. i am researching catholicism as possible faith to follow, as i did previously with islam. i do appreciate your concern, but as i have seen in some of your posts, you seem to be a vindictive person who is here to cause problems, not to learn. and therefore, i won’t dignify any of your posts with a reply. have a nice day
guardian, if myfavorite martin is right, and Jesus did forbid the use of titles, then you cannot call him "“martin the vindictive” because that would be a title. In spite of the fact that he may have earned it on these threads…
So do you think Christ was just saying this for the fun of it?
No, he was making the point, consistent with the rest of the chapter, that people should not be revered when they do not follow the will of God.
 
guardian, if myfavorite martin is right, and Jesus did forbid the use of titles, then you cannot call him "“martin the vindictive” because that would be a title. In spite of the fact that he may have earned it on these threads…
And if he had earned it, then Gandhi was describing him to a tee(see my signature quote)?
Randy Carson said:
Note to Guardian1: The next time you see a post from Myfavoritmartin, ignore it. 👍
Yes, ignore, ignore, ignore…
 
And if he had earned it, then Gandhi was describing him to a tee(see my signature quote)?

Yes, ignore, ignore, ignore…
apologetics=defending the faith
Ignore=seered conscience.

By all means if your conscience tells you to ignore me go ahead!
But remember…
THIS STUFF ISN’T FROM ME, IT IS FROM THE WRITTEN"WORD OF GOD"
 
apologetics=defending the faith
Ignore=seered conscience.

By all means if your conscience tells you to ignore me go ahead!
But remember…
THIS STUFF ISN’T FROM ME, IT IS FROM THE WRITTEN"WORD OF GOD"
Sola Scriptura (or more accurately Sola Verse-or-two-a) run amuck again.

Christ did NOT forbid the use of titles as you would like us to believe. If that’s the case, then you better go after “reverend” and “pastor” too.

Matthew Chapter 23:1-11
Then said Jesus to the crowds and to his disciples, "The scribes and the Pharisees sit on Moses’ seat; so practice and observe whatever they tell you, but not what they do; for they preach, but do not practice. They bind heavy burdens, hard to bear, and lay them on men’s shoulders; but they themselves will not move them with their finger. They do all their deeds to be seen by men; for they make their phylacteries broad and their fringes long, and they love the place of honor at feasts and the best seats in the synagogues, and salutations in the market places, and being called rabbi by men. But you are not to be called rabbi, for you have one teacher, and you are all brethren. And call no man your father on earth, for you have one Father, who is in heaven. Neither be called masters, for you have one master, the Christ. He who is greatest among you shall be your servant; whoever exalts himself will be humbled, and whoever humbles himself will be exalted.

These verses are “clearly” an indictment of self aggrandizing hypocritical behavior, not a prohibition against the use of any specific title, religious or otherwise.
If you would like to be legalisticly literal in your interpretation of these verses, it’s interesting that you take these verses as a prohibition specifically against the use of “father” in referring to a Catholic Priest.

“IF” the verse prohibits the use of terms, then it is the use of “rabbi” when refering to yourself and calling “no man” “father.”

“Obviously” Christ did not prohibit the use of the word father in reference to our earthly bio-logical father. He uses the term himself many times, in Luke Chapter 15 for example.

Given that none of this was said in English and that “father” is just one of the interpretations, I guess that we need to rule out the use of dad and pop an anything else at the same time.

This is just another ridiculously bad scriptural interpretation by someone with an axe to grind against the Catholic Church.

Chuck
 
Sola Scriptura (or more accurately Sola Verse-or-two-a) run amuck again.

Christ did NOT forbid the use of titles as you would like us to believe. If that’s the case, then you better go after “reverend” and “pastor” too.

and now that i think about it, there were several times in the bible when someone would call jesus “rabbi”, and he never rebuked them
 
Martin…

Forgive me if it sounds as an attack, but this is more a question.
THIS STUFF ISN’T FROM ME, IT IS FROM THE WRITTEN"WORD OF GOD"
With respect, this is your interpretation of what God says. How do you know that what you have interpreted, and/or the interpretation you have been taught is valid?

There are three possible sources for an interpretation…
  1. You and your own personal experiences - Like it or not, we are all ruled more by our past experiences than we would like to believe. What you have heard in the past, what you have experienced, all influence how we see things, including the Scriptures.
  2. Devil - The devil can pose as an angel of light. How do you know your understanding isn’t from the devil. Many people will say, oh, you will know if it is from the devil, however, this is far from the truth. If a conman that is a mere human trick people, why is it that we expect to be able to tell if it is from the devil if he is the master of lies. The best lies are those hidden in truth
  3. God- 'nuff said.
Now, the problem comes in with this. How do you know your interpretation of God’s word is right? You imply that what you are teaching is God’s Word. I simply ask, how do you know your understanding of God’s word is right? If you say it is because you feel it deep within your bones or something there in, then you’re basing it on an emotional response. However, this is a problem too as even scripture says the heart (emotions) is a source of deceit.
…
So… How do you know you are right in your teaching?

May you be blessed in your journey

In Christ
 
This is just another ridiculously bad scriptural interpretation by someone with an axe to grind against the Catholic Church.

Chuck
Or its another situation where the easy definition of Christs’ words is getting twisted to fit to a later tradition of man…
YEP seems very likely in this case.

Kinda like the graven image verse…Doesn’t apply to ROME!
oh yeah and the bowing to people one, oh yeah and the abstaining from meat one, OH yeah and the forbidding marraige one, OH yeah and the communicating with the dead one, OH yeah and the mediator one, OH oh yeah and the eating flesh and blood one, oh yeah and the vain repetition of prayer one.
 
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