While ancient Greece (not Rome) was, as you said, rampant with Pederasty, I do not believe that St. Paul wrote solely of this…but of homosexual acts, in general. He spoke of "
men with
men, leaving the natural use of women & burning in their lust for one another" & **women lying with women **changing nature for that which is unnatural."
As for your claim that he was speaking of pederasty, I have no doubt at all that, if he were condemning pederasty…he would have taught about “men lying with boys”.
Also, as far as I know, the first actual defining of pederasty came from Plato in the fourth century. Though archaelogists suggest that it MIGHT have been a pre-Christ “activity” on the isle of Crete. In other words, if you make the claim that Paul, in Romans, was speaking ONLY of pederasty…you’ll need to provide evidence. Thank you.
Yes, I expect you’re right that he was talking of homosexual acts in general, but my point is that he most likely brought up the point of the sinfulness of such acts because it was quite prevalent at the time- he was aware of it. After all, if it wasn’t happening, he wouldn’t have had to admonish people for it! As far as I can recall from my studies of Roman society, homosexual acts
were illegal, and if (when it did occur) it followed the Greek ‘model’ it would have involved adult males and adolescent boys.
I don’t know if Plato was the first to define pederasty, but in his time, homosexuality was normal- a man would ‘woo’ an adolescent boy by giving gifts. Certain poems (I can’t remember off hand) refer to men giving gifts of apples and even horses! On the other hand, literature from pre-Christian Greece provides no evidence of romantic love between the man and his wife - the sole purpose of marriage being to provide legitimate children to continue the family line and benefit the state. The poet Sappho was a lesbian in more ways than one, since she was from the island of Lesbos and she had sexual relationships with adolescent girls - one can see in her poetry how distraught she becomes when one of these girls eventually leaves her to get married. If I remember correctly, Plato’s
Symposium also refers to the sexual practices of those at the symposium.
I know I have digressed greatly there, and I don’t think homosexuality was as prevalent by Roman times due to the illegality of such practices, and there is also a change in marriage - the main reason is still for legitimate children, but contemporary literature does suggest that romantic love did exist between husband and wife (sorry I can’t give the texts - I just remember being given these points!)… Whatever did happen - whether children were involved or not - my earlier point was really to give my view that Paul was admonishing the acts rather than condemning people who merely had homosexual thoughts…