Given your need to post outside sources and references, you ought to have access to enough information to see the fallacy, dishonesty, and the manipulation the above quote of yours is guilty of!
You take the narrative of the Sodom story as recorded in Genesis and proceed to extract from it what you see fit. Using this flawed approach you could just as easily find no problem with a present day father throwing his daughters to an angry mob in an effort to control their sexual appetite since this action takes place in Genesis without condemnation. (that is, if what the mob indeed wanted was of a sexual nature to begin with!)
You’re post above is right about one thing though. The blatant lie that Sodom’s sin was homosexuality “has been accepted for centuries…” and … “even entered our language with terms like sodomite and sodomy.” In fact you may want to fire up your mouse and start point-clicking your way to some more facts! At what point in history did the word “sodomite” come onto the scene? Because not one passage in all of scripture ever uses this word. Out of all the supposed “anti-gay” scriptures that exist, not even one of them ever uses the Sodom story as a reference. In fact, it’s the Jude 7 passage, with it’s use of the term “sarkos heteras”, that makes the equation of Sodom and homosexuality impossible! Perhaps you can point-and click up commentary from the 1966 Jerusalem Bible (by the way a Catholic translation), if you’d rather not hear it from me.
And while you’re at it, consider this: You seem to like the man-made word of “sodomite”. Well, you’re obviously not alone, because many influential, biased “bible translators”, have erroneously used this word to “translate” a word found in 1 Cor. 6-9 and 1 Tim. 1-10. Do you know what Greek word that is? I’m sure you do. Do you care? If Truth is your concern, you should. It’s “arsenokoite(s)”. Since modern “religious authorities” have progressed the manipulation process to the point of equating this Greek word with “sodomites” and inturn “homosexuals”, perhaps you can find one Church Father (there no quotes are you happy?) that too recognized this Greek word in reference to “homosexuality”. I asked you before, and you evaded the question, so I’m asking you again.
If you put to the test that which I propose within this post, you will have no choice but to retreat from your erroneous, cultrually biased, unscriptural view that “Sodom’s sin was homosexuality”. Not to mention that the first commentary recorded regarding their reason for destruction was by God himself, expressed around 591 B.C.E with no mention of “homosexuality”! If however, you choose not to put to the test any of my words, this too is your choice. And the facts of your position will confirm that it will indeed be a dishonest one!
