S
Setimet
Guest
First of all, I’m sorry I offended you. It was not my intent. There have been a lot of both intentional and unintentional insults on this forum, and I started to lose my patience, but that doesn’t make me causing offense ok. So for that I am truly sorry.The statement that the church at some point said that it was a moral good to torture heretics is completely false. The church has never ever in its history has proclaimed such a thing. O am starting with that because I am shocked with that statement and is completely false.
Regarding your statement, the church is holy, but full of sinners and humans who err. There are some great apologist articles on this such as this one: catholic.com/blog/hector-molina/on-your-marks-the-church-is-holy
Perhaps the simplest way to point out that the church did in fact “due such a thing” is to point out where the church apologizes for it in the Catechism:
“2298 In times past, cruel practices were commonly used by legitimate governments to maintain law and order, often without protest from the Pastors of the Church, who themselves adopted in their own tribunals the prescriptions of Roman law concerning torture. Regrettable as these facts are, the Church always taught the duty of clemency and mercy. She forbade clerics to shed blood. In recent times it has become evident that these cruel practices were neither necessary for public order, nor in conformity with the legitimate rights of the human person. On the contrary, these practices led to ones even more degrading. It is necessary to work for their abolition. We must pray for the victims and their tormentors. (2267)”
And while they might not have condoned shedding blood, they were ok with racking people and crushing members to cause internal bleeding.
Thomas Aquinas, a doctor of the church, himself says that heretics deserve to die. It is in Summa Theologica Question 11. Article 3. Under “I answer that…” newadvent.org/summa/3011.htm#article3
There is a lot of available research on this topic! Several encyclicals condoning torture of heretics, mistreating the Jews, AND encyclicals and apologies for such conduct.
**The church has made mistakes in the past, and it is a fact we all have to face, but it is still Holy because Christ founded it, not because the people in it are perfect. **
The is reason I am making this point to you is because, believe it or not I was once very scrupulous and it is both dangerous and idolatrous to behave as if another mortal human is impeccable.
That being said, I don’t have to tell you, that I’m QUITE human myself and am seriously struggling with potential sin right now.

I did not mean to "give that impression, but it seems like you read much farther into that statement then I was going. Let me explain this, as I seemed have to misworded what I said. The Immaculate Conception was not infallibly defined dogma until 1854, and her Assumption wasn’t until 1950. These are the only two instances of Papal Infallibitly being invoked by an ex cathedra statement in the church’s 2000 year history. uscatholic.org/church/2011/05/there-list-infallible-teachingsThe other point I have to correct is the immaculate conception. The church does not wake up one morning and says hey let come up with a new dogma and they pass a new dogma. What you stated about the immaculate conception gives that impression. The immaculate conception was not publicly promulgated until much later. That it wasn’t defined until much later is false.
The church historically did write on Mary’s purity, and you are correct in saying the teaching did not just “come out of nowhere”. But whether or not she should be regarded specifically as the Immaculate Conception was debated. Two notable examples of opposition were St. Bernard of Clairvaux, and St. Thomas Aquinas ewtn.com/faith/teachings/marya2.htm
You’re right about my understanding of dogma newadvent.org/cathen/05089a.htmAt some you stated that homosexuality or sinful of homosexuality is not a dogma. Again that is incorrect.
What I meant to say was that the church’s teaching on homosexuality is not infallibly defined dogma.
Again I refer to the Catechism:
“892 Divine assistance is also given to the successors of the apostles, teaching in communion with the successor of Peter, and, in a particular way, to the bishop of Rome, pastor of the whole Church, when, without arriving at an infallible definition and without pronouncing in a “definitive manner,” they propose in the exercise of the ordinary Magisterium a teaching that leads to better understanding of Revelation in matters of faith and morals. To this ordinary teaching the faithful “are to adhere to it with religious assent”422 which, though distinct from the assent of faith, is nonetheless an extension of it.”
I have traced the church’s teaching through recent encyclicals to Vatican II, and as far as I have seen it has not been stated in a definitive matter and the language " are to adhere to it with religious assent", has not been used. They do say “cannot be changed” or something like that, but it isn’t something unanimous from bishops. That would be difficult given that there are pro-gay Catholic bishops.
No I know that just because something isn’t infallibly defined doesn’t mean we don’t give it due reverence but if anyone could a document showing that it is infallibly defined or something to expand on my understanding of infallibilty I would greatly appreciate it
H’okay. Peace be with you.
Thanks!