S
sw85
Guest
It is not especially rude; it is even a modern legal term, referring to anal or oral sexual acts between persons of the same sex. It simply easier to type “sodomy” than “sexual acts between persons of the same sex.”First of all I wanted to point out that “sodomizing” is a very rude term. I’m not saying that as an accusation because I am obviously imperfect, I just didn’t know if you were aware that it is offensive.As as the USSCB puts it on marriageuniqueforareason.org "Any lack of respect, lack of compassion, or lack of sensitivity towards persons with a homosexual inclination is unacceptable. "
The issue isn’t whether gender “correlates with the ability to love someone.” The issue is what love actually is. Again, love means willing the good of another. Willing the good of another means neither sinning against them nor inducing them to sin. Hence, whether or not it is possible to love a person you are sodomizing begins first with the question of whether or not it is a sin to sodomize someone. If it is a sin to sodomize someone then it is impossible to express Christian love through such an act. In other words, I am saying we must determine whether or not sodomy is a sin first, before we can decide whether or not any particular sodomitical couple is acting thereby in accord with Christian love. If sodomy is indeed a sin, then such acts are not consistent with Christian love.Second, your statement is a logical fallacy. You have placed your conclusion as the premise of the argument.
I am arguing that you can in fact show love in a meaningful Christian sense in a same-sex relationship by willing the good of another. I argue this because gender in no way correlates with the ability to love someone.
Jesus Christ personally made clear that fornication (that is, sex outside of marriage) defiles a man morally (see Mt. 15:16-20), and that marriage is the union of man and woman (see Mt. 19:4-6 – where he specifically says that it is because God made man male and female that marriage exists). St. Paul personally identified sodomy as a “shameful affection” to which sinners in Rome had been given up (see 1 Rom. 26-27). And the bishops have unanimously taught since the very beginning, without any interruption, that the sexual act belongs to marriage, and that sexual acts outside of marriage (including, necessarily, sodomy) are moral evils. And this is neglecting the abundant Old Testament literature on the topic which is uniformly and unambiguously negative.And so where in the Bible did Jesus or an apostle, or infallibly in Church tradition, was it clearly laid out that sex is unitive and procreative and that they must be both and cannot be just unitive? This is another “appeal to authority” logical fallacy, which by the way MANY theologians, Catholic included argue that those so called prohibitions are misinterpretations.
A thing is infallible if it is revealed by Jesus Christ, taught by the apostles, recorded in Scriptures, enjoys the unambiguous support of the college of bishops at any particular moment in time, or if it is dogmatically defined so by the Pope or an ecumenical Council. The prohibition on sodomy, as near as I can tell, belongs to at least the first three and there is a good case to be made that sodomy runs afoul of at least one Council’s (Trent) definition of marriage, as well. There are in fact very few of the Church’s moral teachings that enjoy such a record of support.
If by “dogma” you mean “a thing which belongs to the deposit of revelation and which is to be believed with divine and catholic faith” then yes, I’m afraid it is, for the reasons I outlined above.Which is why I once again point out the argument against homosexuality is not dogma