B
By_His_Mercy
Guest
Hi Sandusky, and up-front thanks for the dialog!
Is imputation enough? Or do we have to show change in our own bodies (“I was hungry and you fed Me”). The RCC teaches that inherent change is necessary. That aligns with the sheep and goats, Gal 6:7-9, 1 Cor 11:32, John 5:28-29, etc. I don’t think these passages speak of imputed works, but works God did in our own bodies.
John 5:28-29
28 "Do not marvel at this; for an hour is coming, in which all who are in the tombs will hear His voice,
29 and will come forth; those who did the good deeds to a resurrection of life, those who committed the evil deeds to a resurrection of judgment.
Are these imputed deeds or real deeds done in our own bodies? Remember, the CCC teaches that the works are gifts (CCC 2007-2011)…it says they’re not “strict merit”…these are derivative merits since God gave them. That’s all…
Look at what Calvin does with Rom 8…
John Calvin wrote in his Institutes: (III. xi. 23)
3 For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh,
4 so that the requirement of the Law might be fulfilled in us, who do not walk according to the flesh but according to the Spirit.
So Calvin omits the underlined part, and says the “only fulfillment” of the righteousness of the law is obtained by imputation…not fulfillment by walking according to the Spirit (which immediately follows in the text).
This really has bothered me over the years.
Yes, but how. Does one go through Rom 2:5-10 and have to “pass”? Or maybe only the reprobate go through that and all fail?There’s no condemnation for the believer.
Is imputation enough? Or do we have to show change in our own bodies (“I was hungry and you fed Me”). The RCC teaches that inherent change is necessary. That aligns with the sheep and goats, Gal 6:7-9, 1 Cor 11:32, John 5:28-29, etc. I don’t think these passages speak of imputed works, but works God did in our own bodies.
But are they needed to avoid the condemnation along with the world? Are they needed to be moved over with the sheep? Are they needed to be separated as in John 5:28-29?The believer will produce fruit because it’s God’s will that He will.
John 5:28-29
28 "Do not marvel at this; for an hour is coming, in which all who are in the tombs will hear His voice,
29 and will come forth; those who did the good deeds to a resurrection of life, those who committed the evil deeds to a resurrection of judgment.
Are these imputed deeds or real deeds done in our own bodies? Remember, the CCC teaches that the works are gifts (CCC 2007-2011)…it says they’re not “strict merit”…these are derivative merits since God gave them. That’s all…
But my problem is that the details of the judgment doesn’t include that. We’re to be saved if have faith and hold fast (e.g., 1 Cor 15:1-4) but that doesn’t explain how we’ll be saved. If heaven requires holiness, God can make us holy (and forgive the shortcomings) to get us in. That can be part of the “how” we’re saved.I think that’s all that’s necessary.
Yes, I’ve seen this as far back as Calvin, then here on the American side with theologians like Hodge and Berkof (their Systematic Theologies). But I just never bought into that. I think that when we fall short (sin) and are forgiven, we should be considered as if we never sinned…isn’t that what forgiveness is? Why have this other imputation? I believe in the first (although we disagree on when sins are forgiven) but I never understood the need for the second part. Why can’t sin be forgiven to make us righteous, and God’s workmanship in us later be the “visible tag” that identifies us for separation at the judgment?Yes, that’s what I said earlier, the believer is forgiven all sin, and Christ’s righteousness is imputed to him when he believes.
Look at what Calvin does with Rom 8…
John Calvin wrote in his Institutes: (III. xi. 23)
But look at Rom 8:3-4 (Calvin left out v. 4b!! - the underlined part)You see that our righteousness is not in ourselves, but in Christ; that the only way in which we become possessed of it is by being made partakers with Christ, since with Him we possess all riches. There is nothing repugnant to this in what he elsewhere says: “God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us” (Romans 8:3, 4). Here the only fulfillment to which he refers is that which we obtain by imputation.
3 For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh,
4 so that the requirement of the Law might be fulfilled in us, who do not walk according to the flesh but according to the Spirit.
So Calvin omits the underlined part, and says the “only fulfillment” of the righteousness of the law is obtained by imputation…not fulfillment by walking according to the Spirit (which immediately follows in the text).
This really has bothered me over the years.