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Hello!
I am well aware that there are so many threads on the perpetual virginity of Our Lady (especially “Brethren of the Lord; Fundamentalist Arguments”), but I want to devote this thread to this verse in order to get further knowledge on this. Here is the verse (Matthew 1:25):
-"…but had no marital relations with her until she had borne a son;* and he named him Jesus." (NRSV)
-“but knew her not until she had borne a son; and he called his name Jesus.” (RSV)
-“And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.” (KJV)
Most other bible translations (except some Protestant versions which replace “knew her not” with “sexual relations” or “kept her a virgin”) have similar verses.
Many non-Catholic commentaries on the verse state that ‘“And knew her not,… Or “but he knew her not”, answering to the Hebrew that is, had carnal knowledge of her, or copulation with her, though his wife”’ (Gill’s Exposition of the Entire Bible) and many other similar things denying Our Lady’s Perpetual Virginity. In the NRSV version (a Catholic-approved version), “marital relations” is used in place of “knew her not”, and it is easy to know that relations within a marriage usually include intercourse.
So, here comes my question. This verse firmly states (or am I mistaken) that Mary conceived a virgin, but was not a perpetual virgin. As Catholics, how can we defend the dogma of Mary’s Perpetual Virginity when it comes to this verse?
I am well aware that there are so many threads on the perpetual virginity of Our Lady (especially “Brethren of the Lord; Fundamentalist Arguments”), but I want to devote this thread to this verse in order to get further knowledge on this. Here is the verse (Matthew 1:25):
-"…but had no marital relations with her until she had borne a son;* and he named him Jesus." (NRSV)
-“but knew her not until she had borne a son; and he called his name Jesus.” (RSV)
-“And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.” (KJV)
Most other bible translations (except some Protestant versions which replace “knew her not” with “sexual relations” or “kept her a virgin”) have similar verses.
Many non-Catholic commentaries on the verse state that ‘“And knew her not,… Or “but he knew her not”, answering to the Hebrew that is, had carnal knowledge of her, or copulation with her, though his wife”’ (Gill’s Exposition of the Entire Bible) and many other similar things denying Our Lady’s Perpetual Virginity. In the NRSV version (a Catholic-approved version), “marital relations” is used in place of “knew her not”, and it is easy to know that relations within a marriage usually include intercourse.
So, here comes my question. This verse firmly states (or am I mistaken) that Mary conceived a virgin, but was not a perpetual virgin. As Catholics, how can we defend the dogma of Mary’s Perpetual Virginity when it comes to this verse?