
Maybe my example of starvation was a bad example of suffering devoid of human cause. But this gets me thinking, there are very few occasions where a person would force someone to starve, so its the lack of human charity or apathy that leads to this sort of suffering. Not someone’s ill intention.
Ok, but even so, “lack of human charity or apathy” is still “human cause”, so you can’t claim that it’s “devoid of human cause.”
Two thoughts: first…
FAKE! 
But, second: I guess what you’re really trying to point out isn’t this particular example, but rather, the question of whether natural evil, and the suffering it causes, is proof of God’s lack of justice. I would recommend that you look to Aquinas for a good discussion of this question.
This article on Aquinas’ thought on this matter is a good one. Basically, Aquinas argues that, if natural evil is an unavoidable part of materiality, then one cannot suggest that God acts unjustly by allowing it. So, for Aquinas, the answer is that God cannot be held to blame for natural evils in the world, since, although there is the
potential for a lack of natural evil, and that was the case in the Garden of Eden, it is not necessary for God’s goodness or omnipotence to maintain the world in that state (especially given humanity’s choice to prefer sin).
that still doesn’t change the fact that if he is apathetic to human suffering he has acted in a immoral way.
I guess that you would have to be able to demonstrate that God is “apathetic to human suffering” to make that point stick. To anything you might offer, I would be able to counter that God sent His Son, in order to free us from the inability to escape from suffering and death.
That may be, that doesn’t mean my definition is wrong.
It certainly does, if the validity of your definition relies on your conclusion (and your conclusion relies on your definition).
Definition
Free Will: Is Your ability to make decisions regardless of morality, with the capacity to act on those decisions to the best of your ability, while not being hindered to experience both, natural and man-made (or at least involved), positive and negative events.
That’s one definition of free will. However, other definitions don’t rely on “the capacity to act on those decisions” as part of the definition of free will. You’d have to be able to demonstrate that your definition is the most reasonable one, before we could continue on, using your definition.

After all, the word “will” itself speaks to mental states, not physical actions…
I’m trying to prove that definition wrong, I’m arguing two things, one that there are certain events that are devoid of free will, such as a man walking down the street getting struck by lightning
Natural evil has nothing to do with free will. Why do you continue to insist it’s an example of thwarted free will?
or a freak brain aneurysm.
Again, irrelevant to a discussion of free will. Rather, this has to do with physical imperfections. Are you really trying to talk about free will, here? Or, rather, are you talking about the fact that we’re not perfect, and that God’s at fault for making us in a way that isn’t 100% perfect in all its aspects?
If God turns a deranged murderers axe into silly putty this could be considered a violation of his free will (According to the definition I believe God has!) to act out his decisions to the best of his ability, but were talking about the free will of a deranged murderer versus the well-being of his victims. So intervention should be considered a moral necessity.
Why a ‘moral necessity’? Given that God offers eternal life, why do you claim that death gives rise to a moral imperative for God?
if God could intervene and stop any amount of suffering, without interfering with free will then he should.
OK… if this is your case, then please explain why He should.
Not doing so would lead to him being apathetic, something that I think you consider to be immoral.
No, not apathetic, but with something else in mind.
An example: your teenaged child is learning how to manage interpersonal relationships. You can see that, in their current relationship, they’re gonna get their feelings hurt, but you also see that the lessons that this teaches them will be valuable in a larger context, and will allow him to grow and become a responsible adult. So, your lack of intervention doesn’t show ‘apathy’, it shows that you have your mind on a greater goal – and one that your child doesn’t have the perspective to see at the moment. In other words, there’s no moral imperative for you to act; and that lack of action does not imply apathy or evil on your part.